A patient received maintenance doses of fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) 25 mg IM every 2 weeks for 2 years. The clinic nurse notes the patient is grimacing and seems to be constantly smacking her lips. On the next clinic visit, the patient's neck and shoulders twist in a slow, snakelike motion. The nurse should suspect the presence of ______ and should ______.
- A. agranulocytosis"¦check the patient's complete blood count for changes
- B. tardive dyskinesia"¦administer the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale
- C. Tourette's syndrome"¦consult the patient's physician about a neuro evaluation
- D. anticholinergic effects"¦consult the physician about possible medication changes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: tardive dyskinesia"¦administer the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale.
1. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term use of antipsychotic medications like fluphenazine.
2. The symptoms described - grimacing, lip smacking, twisting neck and shoulders - are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia.
3. Administering the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale is the appropriate assessment tool for diagnosing tardive dyskinesia.
4. Agranulocytosis (choice A) is a rare but serious side effect of some antipsychotic medications, not associated with the symptoms described.
5. Tourette's syndrome (choice C) typically presents with vocal and motor tics, not the specific symptoms mentioned.
6. Anticholinergic effects (choice D) can cause dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision, but not the involuntary movements described.
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Which characteristic fits the usual profile of an individual diagnosed with pedophilic disorder?
- A. Homosexual
- B. Ritualistic behaviors
- C. Seeks access to children
- D. Self-confident professional
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an individual diagnosed with pedophilic disorder typically seeks access to children for sexual purposes. This behavior is a key characteristic of pedophilia. Homosexuality (A) is not a defining factor in pedophilic disorder. Ritualistic behaviors (B) are not specific to pedophilia but may be present in some cases. Being a self-confident professional (D) does not correlate with pedophilic tendencies. In summary, seeking access to children (C) aligns with the diagnostic criteria for pedophilic disorder, making it the most fitting characteristic.
A nurse would conclude that a patient with an eating disorder is exhibiting a cognitive distortion after hearing the patient make which statement?
- A. I see now that I need to establish my own preferences and routines.'
- B. Bingeing makes my feelings of both isolation and loneliness go away.'
- C. Controlling what I eat has been a way for me to exert control over my life.'
- D. I need to watch for hunger and fatigue as triggers for my eating disorder.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the statement reflects emotional reasoning, a common cognitive distortion in eating disorders. The patient believes that bingeing is an effective way to cope with feelings of isolation and loneliness, which is not a healthy or rational belief. This cognitive distortion can perpetuate the cycle of disordered eating behavior.
A: This choice shows a healthy realization and decision-making process, indicating a positive step towards recovery.
C: While controlling food intake may be a coping mechanism, it doesn't necessarily indicate a cognitive distortion.
D: This choice demonstrates awareness of triggers, which is important for managing the disorder, but it doesn't necessarily indicate a cognitive distortion.
What is the most appropriate nursing goal for a patient with bulimia nervosa?
- A. To eliminate binge-purge episodes and restore healthy eating habits.
- B. To focus on weight loss and body image issues.
- C. To monitor calorie intake and restrict food consumption.
- D. To encourage excessive exercise to maintain weight control.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To eliminate binge-purge episodes and restore healthy eating habits. This goal is appropriate as it addresses the core issue of bulimia nervosa, which is the cycle of bingeing and purging. By focusing on eliminating these episodes and promoting healthy eating habits, the patient can achieve long-term recovery.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the underlying psychological and behavioral aspects of bulimia nervosa. Weight loss and body image issues (B) may exacerbate the disorder, monitoring calorie intake and restricting food consumption (C) can reinforce the cycle of bingeing and purging, and encouraging excessive exercise (D) can lead to further health complications.
An older adult patient who lives with a daughter and attends the Alzheimer day hospital program exhibits bilateral bruising for the second time on both upper outer arms. When the nurse questions the patient about the bruising, the patient starts to cry and pleads, 'Please don't say anything. It's not my daughter's fault. I just bruise easily.' Which intervention reflects the best management of this situation?
- A. Call the daughter to discuss both the bruising and her parent's reaction.
- B. Report the elder abuse, and inform the patient and the daughter of your intention.
- C. Notify the patient's social worker of the bruising after a complete assessment has been completed.
- D. Inform the patient and the daughter of your intention to document the bruising and arrange for appropriate counseling.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report the elder abuse and inform the patient and the daughter of your intention. This is the best intervention as it prioritizes the safety and well-being of the older adult. Here's the rationale:
1. The patient's repeated bruising and fear of disclosure indicate potential abuse.
2. Reporting elder abuse is mandatory to ensure protection for the patient.
3. Informing the patient and daughter shows transparency and involves them in the process.
4. It is crucial to address the situation promptly to prevent further harm.
Summary:
A: Calling the daughter may escalate the situation and compromise the patient's safety.
C: Notifying the social worker without addressing the abuse directly may delay necessary action.
D: Counseling may be beneficial, but addressing the abuse is a priority to ensure the patient's safety.
A severely withdrawn patient diagnosed with schizophrenia will spend time in the dayroom but will not speak to staff or to other patients. The most therapeutic nursing intervention in response to this behavior would be to:
- A. seat the patient with a group of patients who are talking to each other.
- B. ignore the silence and talk about superficial topics such as the weather.
- C. point out that the patient makes others uncomfortable by refusing to speak.
- D. plan time for staff members to sit with the patient even though the patient does not talk with them.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it focuses on building a therapeutic relationship with the patient without placing pressure on them to speak. By planning time for staff members to sit with the patient, even if the patient does not talk, it allows for nonverbal communication and presence to convey support and care. This approach respects the patient's boundaries and allows them to engage at their own pace, fostering trust and a sense of safety.
Choice A is incorrect as it may overwhelm the patient by placing them in a social situation they are not ready for. Choice B is incorrect as discussing superficial topics does not address the patient's underlying issues. Choice C is incorrect as it may make the patient feel judged or pressured to speak, further isolating them.