Nokea
A patient receiving an antipsychotic agent develops acute extrapyramidal symptoms. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
- A. These symptoms are not real; the medication makes your brain think they are real.
- B. You have developed an allergy to the medication, so we need to change it.
- C. These are the results of the drug that can be treated; your illness is not getting worse.
- D. The sunlight together with the medication has caused these symptoms; just stay indoors.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are treatable side effects of antipsychotics, not indicative of worsening illness. The nurse?s response should reassure the patient and explain that EPS can be managed. Denying symptoms, suggesting an allergy, or blaming sunlight are incorrect and nontherapeutic.
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A group of nursing students are reviewing information related to drug therapy for mood disorders. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which agent as the gold standard for treating bipolar disorder?
- A. Carbamazepine
- B. Lithium
- C. Valproate
- D. Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium is the gold standard for bipolar disorder due to its proven efficacy in stabilizing mood and preventing manic episodes. Carbamazepine, valproate, and lamotrigine are used but are not considered the primary standard.
The nurse is reviewing the medical records of several patients receiving antipsychotic agents. Which factors, if noted, would the nurse identify as placing a patient at greater risk for tardive dyskinesia?
- A. Male gender
- B. Age 30 to 45 years
- C. History of depression
- D. Short duration of treatment
Correct Answer: None
Rationale: Tardive dyskinesia risk factors include older age, female gender, longer treatment duration, and certain conditions, not depression. None of the options (male gender, age 30?45, depression, short duration) are primary risk factors, suggesting a possible test error, but none apply.
A nurse administers a prescribed dose of lithium at 8 PM. The nurse would schedule a specimen to be obtained for a blood level at which time?
- A. 10:00 PM
- B. 12:00 AM
- C. 4:00 AM
- D. 8:00 AM
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium levels are typically drawn 12 hours after the last dose to measure trough levels, ensuring steady-state concentration. A dose at 8 PM would require a blood draw at 8 AM. Earlier times (10 PM, 12 AM, 4 AM) do not align with this timing.
During the stabilization phase of drug therapy for a patient who is hospitalized with a psychiatric disorder, which action would be most appropriate?
- A. Discussing the timing of tapering the medication
- B. Instructing the patient about relapse prevention
- C. Determining if the medication is losing its effect
- D. Assessing the patient for target symptoms and side effects
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The stabilization phase focuses on optimizing medication to control symptoms while monitoring for side effects. Assessing target symptoms and side effects ensures efficacy and safety. Tapering, relapse prevention, and loss of effect are addressed in later phases, such as maintenance or discontinuation.
A patient is prescribed medication for a psychiatric disorder. After 3 days, the patient tells the nurse that he or she has been constipated. Which instruction would the nurse give the patient?
- A. You need to eat more high-protein foods such as meat and peanut butter.
- B. You need to eat more fruits and vegetables and drink more water.
- C. Ask your psychiatrist to prescribe a stool softener for you.
- D. This side effect should disappear within a week or so.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Constipation, a common side effect of psychiatric medications, can be managed by increasing dietary fiber (fruits and vegetables) and hydration (water). High-protein foods may worsen constipation, a stool softener may be premature without dietary changes, and waiting for resolution dismisses the patient?s discomfort.