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A patient undergoing IVF asks about the risks of transferring multiple embryos. What should the nurse discuss?
- A. Increased chances of multiple pregnancies, which can pose risks to both mother and babies.
- B. Reduced implantation rates due to overcrowding in the uterus.
- C. Improved success rates with no associated risks.
- D. Increased likelihood of genetic abnormalities.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring multiple embryos during IVF increases the likelihood of multiple pregnancies, which can lead to complications for both the mother and babies, such as preterm birth and low birth weight. This is a well-documented risk in IVF procedures.
Choice B is incorrect because overcrowding in the uterus does not reduce implantation rates; rather, it can increase the chances of successful implantation of the embryos.
Choice C is incorrect as transferring multiple embryos does not guarantee improved success rates and can actually increase the risks associated with multiple pregnancies.
Choice D is incorrect because while there is a slightly increased risk of genetic abnormalities in pregnancies resulting from IVF, the primary concern related to transferring multiple embryos is the increased risk of multiple pregnancies.
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A 35-year-old client is being seen for her yearly gynecological examination. She states that she and her partner have been trying to become pregnant for a little over 6 months, and that a friend had recently advised her partner to take ginseng to improve the potency of his sperm. The woman states that they have decided to take their friend's advice. On which of the following information should the nurse base his or her reply?
- A. Based on their history
- B. the client and her partner have made the appropriate decision regarding their fertility.
- C. Ginseng can cause permanent chromosomal mutations and should be stopped immediately.
- D. It is unnecessary to become concerned about this woman's fertility because she has tried to become pregnant for only a few months.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: While ginseng may have some benefits, fertility counseling is advisable given the duration of attempts.
What is the primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing?
- A. To determine the presence of infections.
- B. To evaluate sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- C. To check for hormonal imbalances.
- D. To test for genetic abnormalities in sperm.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing is to evaluate sperm count, motility, and morphology. This is crucial in assessing male fertility potential. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm, motility refers to their ability to move effectively, and morphology assesses the shape and structure of sperm. These factors directly impact the likelihood of successful fertilization. Checking for infections (choice A) is important but not the primary purpose. Hormonal imbalances (choice C) are typically evaluated through blood tests, not semen analysis. Testing for genetic abnormalities in sperm (choice D) is a separate test and not the primary focus of a semen analysis.
What is the role of antral follicle count (AFC) in assessing fertility?
- A. It measures uterine health and implantation readiness.
- B. It estimates ovarian reserve by counting developing follicles.
- C. It identifies hormonal imbalances affecting fertility.
- D. It predicts the likelihood of male infertility.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because antral follicle count (AFC) is a direct indicator of ovarian reserve, reflecting the number of small developing follicles in the ovaries. A higher AFC indicates a larger pool of potential eggs, suggesting better fertility potential. Other choices are incorrect as AFC specifically relates to ovarian health and not uterine health (A), hormonal imbalances (C), or male fertility (D).
During preconception counseling, a nurse discusses the impact of male age on fertility. What statement requires correction?
- A. Pregnancy rates are not related to the age of the male partner.
- B. Sexually active males should be routinely tested for STIs and treated appropriately.
- C. Maintaining a healthy weight is important for the reproductive health of both female and male partners.
- D. Certain medications, such as testosterone supplementation and chemotherapy, can impact male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because male age does impact fertility. Advanced paternal age is associated with decreased fertility and increased risk of genetic abnormalities in offspring. Choice B is correct as STIs can affect fertility. Choice C is relevant as obesity can impact male fertility. Choice D is correct as certain medications can impact male fertility. Overall, choice A is incorrect as male age does play a role in fertility outcomes.
A nurse is instructing a patient on the role of folic acid in preconception care. What is the correct explanation?
- A. Folic acid prevents iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy.
- B. Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus.
- C. Folic acid is only necessary during the first trimester of pregnancy.
- D. Folic acid enhances the absorption of calcium and vitamin D.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because folic acid plays a crucial role in reducing the risk of neural tube defects in the fetus during early pregnancy. Folic acid is essential for proper development of the neural tube, which forms the baby's brain and spinal cord. This is why it is particularly important during preconception care and in the early stages of pregnancy.
Choice A is incorrect because folic acid is not specifically for preventing iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as folic acid is important throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice D is incorrect because folic acid does not directly enhance the absorption of calcium and vitamin D.