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A patient was sneezing frequently after a few days of allergic rhinitis, and she noticed her eye became red. She denies any trauma, eye pain, or visual disturbance. Physical examination reveals a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Which statement is accurate pertaining to this case?
- A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
- B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
- C. Corticosteroid eye drops will be prescribed to reduce the bleeding.
- D. Antibiotic eye drops will be prescribed to prevent infection.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.' Subconjunctival hemorrhage typically resolves on its own without treatment. It is a self-limiting condition that does not require specific intervention. Choice B is incorrect as immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary for subconjunctival hemorrhage unless there are other concerning symptoms or risk factors present. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid eye drops are not typically used for subconjunctival hemorrhage. Choice D is also incorrect as antibiotic eye drops are not indicated since subconjunctival hemorrhage is not due to an infection.
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Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?
- A. Primary aldosteronism
- B. Essential hypertension
- C. White coat hypertension
- D. Prehypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary aldosteronism is a common cause of secondary hypertension. In primary aldosteronism, there is an overproduction of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion, ultimately resulting in high blood pressure. Essential hypertension (Choice B) is the most common type of hypertension, but it is considered primary hypertension, not secondary. White coat hypertension (Choice C) refers to elevated blood pressure readings in a clinical setting due to anxiety but not in daily life. Prehypertension (Choice D) is a condition where blood pressure levels are elevated but not high enough to be classified as hypertension.
Nurse Isabelle enters the room of a client with a cognitive impairment disorder and asks what day of the week it is, what the date, month, and year are, and where the client is. The nurse is attempting to assess:
- A. confabulation.
- B. delirium.
- C. orientation.
- D. perseveration.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "orientation." Nurse Isabelle is assessing the client's orientation by asking questions about time (day, date, month, year), place, and person. This assessment helps determine the client's awareness of their surroundings and situation. Confabulation (choice A) is the unintentional fabrication of details or events to fill in memory gaps and is not being assessed in this scenario. Delirium (choice B) is a state of acute confusion and disorientation, usually with a rapid onset, which is different from assessing orientation. Perseveration (choice D) refers to the persistent repetition of a response, statement, or behavior and is not the focus of the assessment being conducted by Nurse Isabelle in this situation.
Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for a client with dementia?
- A. The client will return to an established schedule for activities of daily living.
- B. The client will learn new coping mechanisms to handle anxiety.
- C. The client will seek out resources in the community for support.
- D. The client will follow an established schedule for activities of daily living.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. For clients with dementia, following an established schedule for activities of daily living is appropriate as it helps maintain routine and structure, which can be beneficial for their condition. Choice A has been rephrased to align better with the context of dementia care. Choice A is incorrect as expecting a return to a previous level of self-functioning may not be realistic for clients with dementia. Choice B is not the most appropriate outcome criteria as handling anxiety, while important, may not be the primary focus when working with clients with dementia. Choice C, seeking out resources in the community for support, is also important but may not be as directly related to the day-to-day care and management of activities for a client with dementia.
Which goal is a priority for a client with a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of delirium and the nursing diagnosis Acute confusion related to recent surgery secondary to traumatic hip fracture?
- A. The client will complete activities of daily living.
- B. The client will maintain safety.
- C. The client will remain oriented.
- D. The client will understand communication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The client will maintain safety.' For a client with delirium, especially in the context of acute confusion post-surgery, safety is the top priority. Delirium can lead to disorientation, impaired decision-making, and increased risk of falls or accidents. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent harm is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are important but not the priority in this scenario. Completing activities of daily living, remaining oriented, and understanding communication are relevant goals but come after ensuring the client's safety in the presence of delirium and acute confusion.
During a home visit to a family of three: a mother, father, and their child, the mother tells the community nurse that the father (who is not present) had hit the child on several occasions when he was drinking. The mother further explains that she has talked her husband into going to Alcoholics Anonymous and asks the nurse not to interfere so her husband won't get angry and refuse treatment. Which of the following is the best response of the nurse?
- A. The nurse agrees not to interfere if the husband attends an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting that evening.
- B. The nurse commends the mother's efforts and agrees to let her handle things.
- C. The nurse commends the mother's efforts and also contacts protective services.
- D. The nurse confronts the mother's failure to protect the child.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the best response for the nurse is to commend the mother's efforts in seeking help for her husband by encouraging him to attend Alcoholics Anonymous. However, it is crucial for the nurse to also contact protective services to ensure the safety and well-being of the child. Option A is incorrect as it is not appropriate to condition non-interference on the husband attending a meeting that evening. Option B is incorrect because solely letting the mother handle things might put the child at risk. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to ensure the child's safety through involving protective services.