Age Specific Care Competency Related

Review Age Specific Care Competency related questions and content

A patient who has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) 60 mg daily for the past 6 months tells the nurse at the medication follow-up clinic that he is considering stopping the Prozac. He states his mood is fine, and now that he is living normally, his wife is concerned that he has no sex drive. Which response would be best?

  • A. Without the medicine the depression will likely return; you and your wife will need to adjust to the sexual side effects.
  • B. If we switch your medication time to the morning, the sexual side effects will be worn off in time for evening sexual activity.
  • C. The problem is not likely due to the medicine. Often the depression itself, even after it improves, continues to dampen sex drive.
  • D. Without an antidepressant, the depression is more likely to reoccur, but there are other medications that do not interfere so much with sex.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer D is correct:
1. Correctly acknowledges the patient's concern about sexual side effects.
2. Highlights the importance of managing depression to prevent recurrence.
3. Offers a solution by mentioning alternative medications with less impact on sex drive.
4. Empowers the patient by providing information and options for treatment.
5. Addresses both the patient's current situation and long-term mental health needs.

Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Overlooks the patient's valid concern about sexual side effects and lacks a proactive solution.
B: Focuses on timing of medication without addressing the underlying issue of sexual side effects.
C: Dismisses the patient's concern and fails to provide a solution or alternative options.