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A patient who is receiving positive pressure ventilation is scheduled for a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT). Which finding by the nurse is most important to discuss with the health care provider before starting the SBT?
- A. New ST segment elevation is noted on the cardiac monitor.
- B. Enteral feedings are being given through an orogastric tube.
- C. Scattered rhonchi are heard when auscultating breath sounds.
- D. HYDROmorphone (Dilaudid) is being used to treat postoperative pain.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: New ST segment elevation is noted on the cardiac monitor. This finding is concerning because it may indicate myocardial ischemia or infarction, which can be exacerbated by the physiological stress of weaning from mechanical ventilation. It is crucial to address any cardiac issues before initiating a spontaneous breathing trial to prevent potential cardiac complications during the weaning process.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Enteral feedings being given through an orogastric tube are not contraindicated for starting a spontaneous breathing trial.
C: Scattered rhonchi heard when auscultating breath sounds may indicate retained secretions but are not a contraindication for a spontaneous breathing trial.
D: The use of HYDROmorphone to treat postoperative pain is not a contraindication for a spontaneous breathing trial unless it is causing respiratory depression, which would need to be addressed separately.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is an early signs of the effect of hypoxemia on the nervous system?
- A. Cyanosis
- B. Restlessness
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Tachypnea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Restlessness. When the body experiences hypoxemia (low oxygen levels), the brain is deprived of oxygen, leading to early signs such as restlessness. This is due to the brain's attempt to increase oxygen intake by increasing activity. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of hypoxemia when oxygen levels are critically low. Tachycardia (C) and tachypnea (D) are compensatory mechanisms in response to hypoxemia, but they are not early signs affecting the nervous system directly.
Which statement is a likely response from someone who h as survived a stay in the critical care unit?
- A. “I don’t remember much about being in the ICU, but if I had to be treated there again, it would be okay. I’m glad I can see my grandchildren again.”
- B. “If I get that sick again, do not take me to the hospital. I would rather die than go through having a breathing tube put in again.”
- C. “My family is thrilled that I am home. I know I need some extra attention, but my children have rearranged their schedules to help me ou t.”
- D. “Since I have been transferred out of the ICU, I cannot get enough to eat. They didn’t let me eat in the ICU, so I’m making up for it no w.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it reflects a positive attitude towards potential future treatments in the critical care unit and gratitude for being able to see family again. The survivor acknowledges the past experience but remains optimistic.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect as it shows a strong aversion to hospital care, indicating a preference for death over treatment.
- Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the family's reaction and not the survivor's personal experience or perspective.
- Choice D is incorrect as it highlights a trivial aspect (eating) rather than reflecting on the ICU experience or future treatments.
The charge nurse is supervising the care of four critical ca re patients being monitored using invasive hemodynamic modalities. Which patient should t he charge nurse evaluate first?
- A. A patient in cardiogenic shock with a cardiac output (CabOirb). coofm 2/te.0st L/min
- B. A patient with a pulmonary artery systolic pressure (PA P) of 20 mm Hg
- C. A hypovolemic patient with a central venous pressure (CVP) of 6 mm Hg
- D. A patient with a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 10 mm Hg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the patient in cardiogenic shock with a cardiac output of 2.0 L/min is experiencing a life-threatening condition that requires immediate evaluation. Cardiogenic shock indicates poor cardiac function, which can lead to multi-organ failure. Monitoring cardiac output is crucial in managing these patients.
Choice B is incorrect because a pulmonary artery systolic pressure of 20 mm Hg is within normal range and does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition.
Choice C is incorrect because a CVP of 6 mm Hg in a hypovolemic patient may indicate volume depletion, but it is not as urgent as the patient in cardiogenic shock.
Choice D is incorrect because a PAOP of 10 mm Hg is within normal range and does not suggest an immediate critical condition.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient in the critica l care unit. The physician has ordered patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for the patient. The nurse understands what facts about the PCA? (Select all that apply.)
- A. It is a safe and effective method for administering anal gesia.
- B. It has potentially fewer side effects than other routes of analgesic administration.
- C. It is an ideal method to provide critically ill patients so me control over their treatment.
- D. It does not work well without family assistance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Answer A is correct:
1. Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) allows patients to self-administer pain medication within preset limits, promoting pain management.
2. PCA is considered safe and effective as it provides better pain control, reduces the risk of overdose, and allows for individualized dosing.
3. Healthcare providers can monitor and adjust the PCA settings as needed to ensure optimal pain relief.
4. Studies have shown that PCA is a preferred method for postoperative pain management due to its efficacy and safety profile.
5. Overall, PCA is a reliable and beneficial approach to analgesia administration in postoperative patients.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: While PCA may have fewer side effects compared to some routes, this is not a defining characteristic of PCA.
C: While patients do have some control over their treatment with PCA, the primary focus is on pain management rather than giving control to critically ill patients.
D: PCA can be used effectively without family
Which nursing actions for the care of a dying patient can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)?
- A. Provide postmortem care to the patient.
- B. Encourage the family members to talk with and reassure the patient.
- C. Determine how frequently physical assessments are needed for the patient.
- D. Teach family members about commonly occurring signs of approaching death.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing postmortem care to a dying patient is a task that can be safely delegated to an LPN/LVN. This includes tasks such as preparing the body, cleaning, and positioning after death. LPNs/LVNs are trained and competent in performing these duties under the supervision of a registered nurse or physician.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve critical thinking, assessment, and teaching skills that are typically within the scope of practice of a registered nurse. Encouraging family members to talk with the patient, determining assessment frequency, and educating about signs of approaching death require a higher level of nursing judgment and expertise, which is beyond the scope of an LPN/LVN's role.