Nokea
A patient who is taking albendazole reports experiencing fatigue, nausea, and dark urine. The nurse observes a yellowing of the patient’s skin and sclera. Which laboratory result should the nurse review?
- A. Thyroid function test.
- B. Liver function test.
- C. Renal function panel.
- D. Basic metabolic panel.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albendazole can cause hepatotoxicity, indicated by fatigue, nausea, dark urine, and jaundice. Reviewing liver function tests (B) assesses damage. Thyroid (A), renal (C), and metabolic panels (D) are unrelated to these symptoms.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse administers naloxone to a patient with opioid-induced respiratory depression. An hour later, the nurse finds the patient has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unresponsive. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer a second dose of naloxone.
- B. Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion.
- C. Determine Glasgow Coma Scale score.
- D. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe respiratory depression (4 breaths/min), hypoxia (75% SpO₂), and unresponsiveness require immediate CPR (D) to restore circulation/oxygenation. A second naloxone dose (A) may be needed but is secondary. Chest tubes (B) are irrelevant. Glasgow scoring (C) delays critical intervention.
A client reports confusion and blurred vision after receiving a dose of glipizide. What should the nurse do?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
- B. Measure the client’s vital signs.
- C. Obtain a fingerstick blood glucose.
- D. Perform a neurological exam.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glipizide, a sulfonylurea, can cause hypoglycemia, presenting as confusion and blurred vision. Checking blood glucose (C) confirms the cause. Glucagon (A) treats severe hypoglycemia, not confirmed yet. Vital signs (B) and neurological exams (D) are secondary.
A patient with nasal congestion has been prescribed phenylephrine 10 mg by mouth every 4 hours. What patient condition should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the medication?
- A. Hypertension.
- B. Bronchitis.
- C. Diarrhea.
- D. Edema.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenylephrine, a decongestant, can raise blood pressure, making hypertension (A) a contraindication requiring provider consultation. Bronchitis (B), diarrhea (C), and edema (D) are not directly affected by phenylephrine.
The nurse is planning care for a client with major depression who is receiving a new prescription for duloxetine. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Family history of mental illness.
- B. Weight change in the last month.
- C. Liver function laboratory results.
- D. Recent use of other antidepressants.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Duloxetine is metabolized by the liver, and impaired liver function can increase toxicity risk. Liver function tests (C) are critical before starting. Family history (A), weight changes (B), and other antidepressants (D) are relevant but secondary to liver safety.
A patient with osteoporosis is administered risedronate at 0700 and requests a glass of milk to take with the medication. What should the nurse’s response be?
- A. Advise the patient to only consume water with the medication.
- B. Delay the medication until the patient’s breakfast tray arrives.
- C. Consult with a pharmacist about administering the dose one hour post-meal.
- D. Assign an unlicensed assistive personnel to bring the patient a glass of low-fat milk.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This question is identical to Question 1. Risedronate requires plain water on an empty stomach (A) to ensure absorption. Milk (D) reduces efficacy. Delaying for breakfast (B) or post-meal dosing (C) violates guidelines. Note: Duplicate question; consider removing.