Nokea
A patient who is taking metronidazole for the past 4 days for the treatment of a parasitic infection reports to the nurse that his most recent dose made him 'flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach.' What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?
- A. "Have you experienced any allergic reactions to metronidazole before?"
- B. "Did you drink any alcoholic beverages around the time of taking the drug?"
- C. "Did you take this dose on an empty stomach?"
- D. "Are you currently using any over-the-counter antihistamines?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as flushing, sweating, and gastrointestinal upset. Asking the patient about alcohol consumption can help identify if this reaction is due to alcohol interaction. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on penicillin allergy, which is not relevant to metronidazole. Choice C is less likely to cause the reported symptoms and is not a common concern with metronidazole. Choice D is not directly related to the symptoms described by the patient.
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A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracostomy and/or chest tube placement as treatment to which component of the pathophysiology of the condition?
- A. An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which makes it difficult for the lungs to exchange gases.
- B. Extreme pain caused by a fractured rib
- C. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space affecting both the lungs and heart.
- D. Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is characterized by a large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space, creating pressure that affects both the lungs and heart. This condition can lead to life-threatening consequences by shifting mediastinal structures and impairing cardiac function. Treatment involves decompressing the trapped air to relieve the tension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the primary pathophysiological mechanism of tension pneumothorax, which is the accumulation of air in the pleural space, not blood, rib fractures, or alveolar fluid accumulation.
A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following agents will assist in raising the patient's hemoglobin levels?
- A. Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit)
- B. Pentoxifylline (Pentoxil)
- C. Estazolam (ProSom)
- D. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production and is commonly used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure. By increasing red blood cell production, epoetin alfa helps raise hemoglobin levels in these patients. Pentoxifylline (Choice B) is not indicated for raising hemoglobin levels in chronic renal failure patients; it is a peripheral vasodilator used to improve blood flow. Estazolam (Choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for treating insomnia and has no role in raising hemoglobin levels. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide (Choice D) is a cough suppressant and is not used to raise hemoglobin levels in patients with chronic renal failure.
A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?
- A. Testosterone
- B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
- C. Estrogen
- D. Lactate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.
If a patient complains of dizziness, which term below best describes this feeling?
- A. Contraindication
- B. Sign
- C. Objective data
- D. Symptom
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Symptom.' Dizziness is a symptom because it is a subjective experience reported by the patient. A 'contraindication' refers to a specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful. A 'sign' is an objective finding that can be observed or measured. 'Objective data' refers to measurable and observable information about a patient's condition, which is usually obtained through physical examination or diagnostic tests. Therefore, in this case, 'Symptom' is the best term to describe the patient's feeling of dizziness.
What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form in the body?
- A. Poor dietary habits
- B. Administration of statin medication
- C. Interruption of blood flow to the brain
- D. Injury to the endothelium of the coronary arteries
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Atherosclerotic plaques form in the body due to injury to the endothelium of the coronary arteries. When the endothelium is damaged, it triggers an inflammatory response that leads to the accumulation of fats, cholesterol, and other substances, forming plaques. These plaques can narrow the arteries, reducing blood flow and potentially leading to serious complications like heart attacks or strokes. Poor dietary habits (choice A) can contribute to the development of atherosclerosis by promoting the buildup of plaque-forming substances in the blood, but the direct cause is the injury to the endothelium. Administration of statin medication (choice B) is actually a treatment for high cholesterol and aims to reduce the risk of plaque formation. Interruption of blood flow to the brain (choice C) is more related to conditions like ischemic stroke rather than the primary cause of atherosclerotic plaque formation.