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A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
- A. Administer fentanyl (Duragesic) 25 mg IV bolus.
- B. Administer midazolam 2 mg IV now.
- C. Increase the rate of the morphine infusion by 50%.
- D. Request an order for a paralytic agent.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis.
2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation.
3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility.
4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness.
5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation.
C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression.
D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.
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The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a traumatic brain injury following a motor vehicle crash. The patient’s Glasgow Coma Score is 3 anda binirbte.cromm/ittetset ntly withdraws when painful stimuli are introduced. The patient is ventilator dependent and occasionally takes a spontaneous breath. The primary care provider explains to the family that the patient has severe neurological impairment and it is not expected that the patient will ever recover consciousness. What concept does this situation depict?
- A. An organ donor
- B. Brain death
- C. A persistent vegetative state
- D. Terminally ill
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A persistent vegetative state. This choice is correct because the patient exhibits minimal responsiveness, only withdrawing to painful stimuli, and lacks meaningful interaction or consciousness. A persistent vegetative state is characterized by preserved wakefulness without awareness, which aligns with the patient's condition.
Choice A: An organ donor is incorrect because the patient's neurological impairment does not necessarily indicate readiness for organ donation.
Choice B: Brain death is incorrect because the patient still exhibits some reflexive responses, indicating a level of brain function beyond brain death.
Choice D: Terminally ill is incorrect as it does not specifically address the patient's neurological status and prognosis, which is better described by a persistent vegetative state.
The nurse has identified an increase in medication errors in the critical care unit over the past several months. What aspect of medication procedures should be evaluated first?
- A. Adherence to procedures by nursing staff
- B. Clarity of interdisciplinary communication
- C. Number of new employees on the unit
- D. Changes in administration procedures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adherence to procedures by nursing staff. This should be evaluated first because medication errors are often caused by human factors such as staff not following proper procedures. By assessing adherence, the root cause of errors can be identified and addressed.
Choice B: Clarity of interdisciplinary communication may contribute to errors but doesn't directly address staff adherence to procedures.
Choice C: Number of new employees could be a factor, but focusing on adherence to procedures is more crucial.
Choice D: Changes in administration procedures may impact errors, but evaluating staff adherence is more immediate and directly related to errors.
A patient has just been admitted to the ICU after being in a severe auto accident and losing one of her legs. Her husband has his hand over his heart and complains of a rapid heart rate. The nurse recognizes his condition as a sign of which stage of the general adaptation syndrome to stress?
- A. Alarm stage
- B. Exhaustion stage
- C. Resistance stage
- D. Adaptation stage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alarm stage. The husband's rapid heart rate indicates the initial alarm reaction to stress, characterized by physiological arousal. This stage involves the body's fight-or-flight response to a stressor. In this scenario, the husband is experiencing the physiological effects of the stressful situation, such as the auto accident and loss of a limb. The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Exhaustion stage occurs if stress continues without relief, leading to depletion of resources and increased vulnerability to illness.
C: Resistance stage is the body's attempt to adapt and cope with the stressor after the initial alarm reaction.
D: Adaptation stage is not a recognized stage in the general adaptation syndrome model.
Her urine output for the past 2 hours totaled only 40 mL. She arrived from s urgery to repair an aortic aneurysm 4 hours ago and remains on mechanical ventilation. In the past 2 hours, her heart rate has increased from 80 to 100 beats per minute and he r blood pressure has decreased from 128/82 to 100/70 mm Hg. She is being given an infusaiboirnb .coofm n/toesrtm al saline at 100 mL per hour. Her right atrial pressure through the subclavian cen tral line is low at 3 mm Hg. Her urine is concentrated. Her BUN and creatinine levels have been stable and in normal range. Her abdominal dressing is dry with no indication of bleeding. My assessment suggests that Mrs. P. is hypovolemic and I would like you to consider in creasing her fluids or giving her a fluid challenge. Using the SBAR model for communication, the information the nurse gives about the patient’s history and vital signs is appropriate fo r what part of the model?
- A. Situation
- B. Background
- C. Assessment
- D. Recommendation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessment. In the SBAR communication model, the nurse's information about the patient's history and vital signs falls under the Assessment component. This is because the nurse is providing a detailed evaluation of the patient's current condition based on objective data such as urine output, heart rate, blood pressure, and other key indicators. The nurse is analyzing the situation and forming a judgment that the patient is hypovolemic, indicating a fluid deficit. This assessment is crucial for informing further actions or interventions, such as increasing fluids or providing a fluid challenge.
Summary of other choices:
A: Situation - This choice would refer to a brief summary of the current situation without detailed analysis or interpretation.
B: Background - This choice would involve providing relevant background information about the patient, such as medical history or recent procedures, but not the current assessment of the patient's condition.
D: Recommendation - This choice would involve suggesting a course of action or treatment based on the assessment, which comes after
The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is
- A. sepsis.
- B. fluid overload.
- C. medications.
- D. hemodynamic instability.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sepsis. Sepsis is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients due to the systemic inflammatory response causing renal hypoperfusion. Sepsis leads to a decrease in renal blood flow, resulting in acute kidney injury. Fluid overload (B) can contribute to renal dysfunction but is not the primary cause in critically ill patients. Medications (C) can cause kidney injury, but sepsis is more prevalent. Hemodynamic instability (D) is a consequence of sepsis and can lead to acute kidney injury, making it an indirect cause.