Nokea
A patient with a new diagnosis of lymphoma is experiencing fatigue. Which of the ff. is the best way to assess her fatigue?
- A. Observe her activity level
- B. Have her rate her fatigue on a scale of 0 to
- C. Monitor for changes in vital signs 10
- D. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit values
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because having the patient rate her fatigue on a scale allows for a subjective assessment directly from the patient, providing valuable insight into the severity and impact of fatigue on her daily life. This approach considers the patient's perspective, which is crucial in understanding her experience and tailoring interventions.
Choice A (observing activity level) may not accurately capture the subjective experience of fatigue. Choice C (monitoring vital signs) does not directly assess fatigue but rather general health status. Choice D (monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit values) can indicate anemia but may not fully capture the patient's fatigue experience.
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A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:
- A. Muscle rigidity and spasms
- B. Hiccups
- C. Extrapyramidal reactions
- D. Respiratory depression
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect, especially at higher doses. This is a known adverse reaction to Ketamine administration. Monitoring for muscle rigidity and spasms is important to ensure the safety of the client during and after surgery.
Incorrect choices:
B: Hiccups - Hiccups are not a common side effect of Ketamine administration.
C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine is not known to cause extrapyramidal reactions.
D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine typically does not cause respiratory depression, which is more commonly associated with other anesthetics like opioids.
Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the known side effects of Ketamine.
Approximately how much fluid is lost in acute weight loss of .5kg?
- A. 50 ml
- B. 750 ml
- C. 500 ml
- D. 75 ml
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 500 ml. When someone loses 0.5 kg of weight, it is estimated that about 500 ml of fluid has been lost, as 1 kg of body weight is roughly equivalent to 1 liter of fluid. This fluid loss is due to water loss through sweating, breathing, and urine. Choice A (50 ml) is too small of an amount for a significant weight loss. Choice B (750 ml) is too high and would correspond to a larger weight loss. Choice D (75 ml) is also too small to account for a 0.5 kg weight loss.
Toni’s disease process involves a sacral plexus. Assessment should include:
- A. Bladder problems
- B. Sexual activity
- C. Bowel management
- D. All of the above Charles is a 76 year old retired professional golfer. He has recently been diagnosed as having Parkinson’s disease.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a disease process involving the sacral plexus can impact bladder function (choice A), sexual activity (choice B), and bowel management (choice C). The sacral plexus is responsible for innervating pelvic organs and lower limb muscles, so dysfunction in this area can lead to issues in these functions. Bladder problems can manifest as urinary retention or incontinence, sexual activity may be affected due to changes in sensation or muscle control, and bowel management can be disrupted leading to constipation or incontinence. Therefore, assessing all these areas is crucial to understand the full impact of the disease process on the individual's quality of life.
Which of the ff statements justifies the administration of the prescribed anticonvulsant phenytoin to a client before the intracranial surgery?
- A. To reduce the risk of seizures before and after surgery
- B. To avoid intraoperative complications
- C. To reduce cerebral edema
- D. To prevent postoperative vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant used to prevent seizures.
Step 2: Anticonvulsants are often given before surgery to reduce the risk of seizures during and after the procedure.
Step 3: In the context of intracranial surgery, controlling seizures is crucial to prevent complications like increased intracranial pressure.
Step 4: Therefore, administering phenytoin before surgery helps in reducing the risk of seizures before and after the procedure.
Summary:
- Option B (avoid intraoperative complications) is too broad and doesn't directly relate to the use of phenytoin.
- Option C (reduce cerebral edema) is not the primary indication for phenytoin in this scenario.
- Option D (prevent postoperative vomiting) is not a common reason for administering phenytoin before intracranial surgery.
While planning for proportionate distribution of restricted fluid volumes, what is the reason for a nurse to ensure that the client is actively involved during the development of the plan?
- A. It promotes the clients compliance with therapy
- B. It minimizes the chances of adverse effects
- C. It promotes a strict food and fluid intake habit
- D. It raises the self esteem of the client
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Involving the client in planning increases their understanding and ownership of the plan.
Step 2: Understanding leads to better compliance with therapy recommendations.
Step 3: Compliance improves outcomes and prevents complications.
Step 4: Thus, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D lack direct links to client involvement in planning and compliance.