Nokea
A patient with a sudden onset of hearing loss tells the nurse that he would like to begin using hearing aids. The nurse understands that the health professional dispensing hearing aids would have what responsibility?
- A. Test the patients hearing promptly.
- B. Perform an otoscopy.
- C. Measure the width of the patients ear canal.
- D. Refer the patient to his primary care physician.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Test the patient's hearing promptly. This is because before dispensing hearing aids, it is crucial to accurately assess the patient's hearing ability. Testing the patient's hearing promptly allows the healthcare professional to determine the type and degree of hearing loss, which is essential for selecting the appropriate hearing aids. Performing an otoscopy (choice B) may be part of the assessment but does not provide information on hearing ability. Measuring the width of the patient's ear canal (choice C) is not necessary for dispensing hearing aids. Referring the patient to his primary care physician (choice D) may delay the process of obtaining hearing aids and is not directly related to the responsibility of the health professional dispensing hearing aids.
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The nurse is administering eye drops to a patient with glaucoma. After instilling the patients first medication, how long should the nurse wait before instilling the patients second medication into the same eye?
- A. 30 seconds
- B. 1 minute
- C. 3 minutes
- D. 5 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3 minutes. After administering the first eye drop, waiting for 3 minutes before instilling the second medication allows for proper absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This interval prevents dilution or interaction between the medications. Option A (30 seconds) is too short, not allowing sufficient time for absorption. Option B (1 minute) is also inadequate for proper absorption. Option D (5 minutes) is unnecessarily long and may lead to patient discomfort or inconvenience.
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
- A. Phimosis
- B. Priapism
- C. Herpes simplex infection
- D. Increasing age E) Lack of circumcision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
A patient, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?
- A. Her two children should be treated with acyclovir before she goes home from the hospital.
- B. The baby will acquire immunity from her and will not be susceptible to chickenpox.
- C. The children can visit their mother and baby in the hospital as planned but must wear gowns and masks.
- D. She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
1. The patient's newborn is at risk of contracting chickenpox from the infected children.
2. Chickenpox can be severe in newborns due to their immature immune systems.
3. It is crucial to protect the newborn by ensuring they are not exposed to the virus.
4. Staying elsewhere until the children are no longer contagious will prevent transmission to the newborn.
Incorrect choices:
A: Acyclovir is not recommended for prophylactic treatment in this situation.
B: Immunity is not automatically transferred from the mother to the baby for chickenpox.
C: Allowing the infected children to visit with precautions is not sufficient to protect the newborn.
A patient has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for HIV infection. The patient asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood, this indicates what?
- A. The patient is immune to HIV.
- B. The patients immune system is intact.
- C. The patient has AIDS-related complications.
- D. The patient has been infected with HIV.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient has been infected with HIV. Antibodies to the AIDS virus in the blood indicate a past or current infection with HIV. This is because the body produces antibodies in response to the presence of the virus.
A: The patient is immune to HIV is incorrect because antibodies indicate exposure, not immunity.
B: The patient's immune system is intact is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not necessarily reflect the overall functionality of the immune system.
C: The patient has AIDS-related complications is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not directly indicate the presence of AIDS-related complications.
A 66-year-old patient is in a hospice receiving palliative care for lung cancer which has metastasized to the patients liver and bones. For the past several hours, the patient has been experiencing dyspnea. What nursing action is most appropriate to help to relive the dyspnea the patient is experiencing?
- A. Administer a bolus of normal saline, as ordered.
- B. Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy.
- C. Administer high doses of opioids.
- D. Administer bronchodilators and corticosteroids, as ordered.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy. Dyspnea in a patient with lung cancer can be caused by hypoxia due to compromised lung function. High-flow oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea. Administering a bolus of normal saline (A) would not directly address the underlying cause of dyspnea. Administering high doses of opioids (C) may lead to respiratory depression and should be used cautiously in patients experiencing dyspnea. Administering bronchodilators and corticosteroids (D) may be appropriate for certain types of dyspnea, but in this case, addressing hypoxia with high-flow oxygen therapy is the most appropriate initial nursing action.