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A patient with bipolar disorder has rapid cycles. To prepare teaching materials, the nurse anticipates which medication will be prescribed?
- A. Clonidine (Catapres)
- B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
- D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is commonly used in treating rapid cycling bipolar disorder due to its mood stabilizing properties. It helps regulate mood swings and prevent manic or depressive episodes. It is effective in managing rapid cycling symptoms. Clonidine (A) is used for ADHD and hypertension, not bipolar disorder. Phenytoin (B) is an anticonvulsant, not typically used for bipolar disorder. Chlorpromazine (D) is an antipsychotic mainly for schizophrenia, not specifically indicated for rapid cycling in bipolar disorder.
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A nurse is providing education to a patient with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further education?
- A. I understand that my body needs food to function properly.
- B. I am willing to work on gaining weight with the help of my care team.
- C. I believe that eating food will make me fat and out of control.
- D. I am ready to learn how to improve my relationship with food.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement reflects a common misconception associated with anorexia nervosa, indicating a need for further education. Here's the rationale:
1. Anorexia nervosa involves a distorted body image and fear of gaining weight.
2. Believing that eating food will make one fat and out of control aligns with these distorted beliefs.
3. This statement demonstrates a lack of understanding and acceptance of the importance of proper nutrition for health.
4. Choices A, B, and D show positive attitudes towards recovery and willingness to address the disorder, highlighting a better understanding of the condition.
In summary, choice C shows a need for further education due to the presence of distorted beliefs, while the other options reflect a more positive and informed mindset towards recovery.
A patient admitted to the eating disorders unit has yellow skin, the extremities are cold, and the heart rate is 42 bpm. The patient weighs 70 pounds; height is 5 feet 4 inches. The patient is quiet during the assessment saying only, "I will not eat until I lose enough weight to look thin."Â Select the best initial nursing diagnosis.
- A. Anxiety related to fear of weight gain
- B. Disturbed body image related to weight loss
- C. Ineffective coping related to lack of conflict resolution skills
- D. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to self-starvation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial nursing diagnosis is D: Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to self-starvation. The patient's presentation of yellow skin, cold extremities, bradycardia, low weight, and refusal to eat indicate severe malnutrition due to self-starvation. The key indicators are the physical signs of malnutrition and the patient's statement about not eating until they lose enough weight. Options A and B do not address the primary issue of malnutrition and self-starvation. Option C focuses on coping skills, which is not the priority in this case. Therefore, option D is the best initial nursing diagnosis to address the patient's life-threatening condition of malnutrition.
A 70-year-old woman is beginning to notice mild memory impairment. She fears she is developing dementia. What is the most likely cause of her memory impairment?
- A. Normal aging.
- B. Alzheimer's disease.
- C. Depression.
- D. None of the above.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alzheimer's disease. This is the most likely cause of memory impairment in a 70-year-old woman experiencing mild memory issues. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. It is the most common cause of dementia in older adults. Normal aging (choice A) typically involves some mild memory decline, but significant impairment is not considered a normal part of aging. Depression (choice C) can also impact memory, but in this case, the woman's primary concern is memory impairment, not depressive symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Alzheimer's disease is a possible explanation for her memory issues.
The physician prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), a first-generation antipsychotic drug, for a patient with schizophrenia who displays delusions, hallucinations, apathy, and social isolation. Which symptoms should most be monitored to evaluate the expected improvement from this medication?
- A. Talking to himself, belief that others will harm him
- B. Flat affect, avoidance of social activities, poor hygiene
- C. Loss of interest in recreational activities, alogia
- D. Impaired eye contact, needs help to complete tasks
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because haloperidol is primarily used to target positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as delusions and hallucinations. Monitoring improvements in symptoms like talking to himself and belief that others will harm him will indicate the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they focus on negative symptoms or general social withdrawal, which are less likely to show significant improvement with haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic drug that is more effective for positive symptoms. Monitoring these symptoms may not directly reflect the medication's effectiveness in treating the primary symptoms of schizophrenia in this case.
While the nurse at the personality disorders clinic is interviewing a patient, the patient constantly scans the environment and frequently interrupts to ask what the nurse means by certain words or phrases. The nurse notes that the patient is very sensitive to the nurse's nonverbal behavior. His responses are often argumentative, sarcastic, and hostile. He suggests that he is being hospitalized 'so they can exploit me.' The patient's behaviors are most consistent with the clinical picture of:
- A. paranoid personality disorder.
- B. histrionic personality disorder.
- C. avoidant personality disorder.
- D. narcissistic personality disorder.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: paranoid personality disorder. The patient's behaviors align with the diagnostic criteria for paranoid personality disorder, characterized by suspicion, distrust, sensitivity to criticism, and interpreting benign interactions as threatening. The patient's constant scanning of the environment, interrupting to clarify meanings, being sensitive to nonverbal cues, and displaying argumentative and hostile responses are all indicative of paranoid traits. Additionally, the belief that hospitalization is for exploitation is consistent with paranoid beliefs.
Choices B, C, and D can be ruled out:
B: Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by attention-seeking behavior, emotional instability, and dramatic expression. The patient's behaviors are not suggestive of seeking attention or being overly dramatic.
C: Avoidant personality disorder is marked by social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. The patient's behaviors are more indicative of suspiciousness rather than avoidance.
D: Narcissistic personality disorder involves grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of