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A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?
- A. Supine
- B. Prone
- C. High Fowler's
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High Fowler's. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing efficiency by maximizing chest expansion. Sitting upright reduces pressure on the diaphragm, allowing for better ventilation. Supine (A) position can worsen dyspnea by restricting lung expansion. Prone (B) position is not ideal for COPD patients as it can hinder breathing. Trendelenburg (D) position, where the patient's feet are elevated above the head, can increase pressure on the diaphragm and impair breathing, making it inappropriate for a patient experiencing severe dyspnea.
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A patient with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient for the procedure?
- A. Have the patient void immediately before the procedure.
- B. Position the patient flat in bed.
- C. Administer a full liquid diet.
- D. Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient void immediately before the procedure. This step is crucial to prevent accidental puncture of the bladder during paracentesis. Voiding helps empty the bladder, reducing the risk of injury and ensuring a safer procedure.
Incorrect choices:
B: Position the patient flat in bed - Incorrect, as the patient should be in a sitting position with legs dangling over the side of the bed during the procedure.
C: Administer a full liquid diet - Incorrect, as a full liquid diet is not necessary for paracentesis preparation.
D: Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes - Incorrect, as ambulation is not relevant to preparing for paracentesis.
A client with liver cirrhosis is being educated about managing their condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid drinking alcohol
- B. I need to limit my salt intake
- C. I can take acetaminophen for pain
- D. I should eat a balanced diet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I can take acetaminophen for pain." Acetaminophen can be harmful to the liver, especially in individuals with liver cirrhosis. The liver is responsible for metabolizing acetaminophen, and in cirrhosis, its function is impaired, leading to potential toxicity. Choice A is correct as alcohol can worsen liver damage. Choice B is correct as excess salt can lead to fluid retention and complications. Choice D is correct as a balanced diet is important for overall health. Therefore, the statement about taking acetaminophen indicates a need for further teaching.
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What symptom should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?
- A. Joint pain
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Loss of sensation
- D. Severe headache
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle weakness. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This leads to impaired muscle contraction and weakness, especially in the face, neck, and extremities. Joint pain (A) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis. Loss of sensation (C) is more indicative of a sensory nerve disorder rather than a motor disorder like myasthenia gravis. Severe headache (D) is not a common symptom of myasthenia gravis; it is more likely to be associated with other conditions such as migraines or intracranial pathology.
A patient with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Platelet count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy because heparin primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is reflected in the PTT results. Monitoring PTT helps to ensure that the patient's blood is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation.
A: Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, which affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade.
C: Bleeding time is not typically used to monitor heparin therapy effectiveness.
D: Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not directly reflect the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing or treating DVT.
The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Shortness of breath.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nausea and vomiting. This finding requires immediate intervention because digoxin toxicity can present with gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea and vomiting. This can indicate an overdose of digoxin, which can be life-threatening. Prompt action is necessary to prevent further complications.
A: Heart rate of 58 beats per minute is within the therapeutic range for digoxin and does not require immediate intervention.
C: Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent issue.
D: Shortness of breath can be a symptom of heart failure but is not a direct indication of digoxin toxicity requiring immediate intervention.