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A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Reduce inflammation
- B. Relieve bronchospasm
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Ipratropium is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, leading to bronchodilation and improved airflow. This helps to relieve bronchospasm, a common symptom in COPD. Choice A is incorrect because ipratropium does not have significant anti-inflammatory effects. Choice C is incorrect as ipratropium does not directly suppress cough. Choice D is incorrect as ipratropium does not specifically target respiratory secretions.
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An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?
- A. Look at last quarter's hemoglobin and hematocrit to assess for dehydration.
- B. Look for an increase in today's LDH compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage.
- C. Expect to find an increase in today's APTT compared to last quarter's due to bleeding.
- D. Determine if there is a decrease in serum potassium due to renal compromise.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should look for an increase in today's LDH compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage. Acetaminophen overdose can lead to liver toxicity, which can be indicated by elevated LDH levels. LDH is an enzyme released during liver damage. Checking for LDH levels can help assess the impact of increased acetaminophen doses on the liver.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: Looking at hemoglobin and hematocrit is not directly related to acetaminophen use for joint pain. It does not provide information about liver damage.
C: APTT measures blood clotting time and is not directly affected by acetaminophen use for joint pain. It does not provide information about liver damage.
D: Serum potassium levels are not typically affected by acetaminophen use for joint pain. It does not provide information about liver damage.
What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Decrease cardiac output
- C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary action of digoxin in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions. Digoxin inhibits the sodium-potassium pump, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium levels, which enhances the force of myocardial contractions. This helps improve cardiac output and symptoms of heart failure.
Explanation:
A: Incorrect - Digoxin does not increase heart rate, it mainly affects the strength of contractions.
B: Incorrect - Digoxin does not decrease cardiac output; it actually helps improve it by enhancing contractility.
D: Incorrect - Digoxin may have a slight effect on lowering blood pressure, but its primary action in heart failure is to strengthen cardiac contractions, not lower blood pressure.
The healthcare provider prescribes 15 mg/kg of Streptomycin for an infant weighing 4 pounds. The drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W to run over 8 hours. How much Streptomycin will the infant receive?
- A. 9 mg
- B. 18 mg
- C. 27 mg
- D. 36 mg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dose of Streptomycin, we first need to convert the infant's weight from pounds to kg (4 lbs = 1.81 kg). Then, we multiply the weight in kg by the prescribed dose (15 mg/kg) to get the total dose (1.81 kg * 15 mg/kg = 27.15 mg). Since the drug is diluted in 25 ml of D5W, the infant will receive 27.15 mg in 25 ml solution. To find how much Streptomycin the infant actually receives, we need to calculate the amount in 1 ml (27.15 mg / 25 ml = 1.086 mg/ml). Finally, to determine how much the infant will receive over 8 hours, we multiply the concentration by the infusion rate (1.086 mg/ml * 25 ml * 8 hours = 217.2 mg). Therefore, the correct answer is A: 9 mg, as it represents the amount
The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain during coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the muscles involved in coughing, leading to diminished cough effort. This can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications. Pain during coughing (choice A) may occur but is not the primary cause of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. Thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not as directly related to the underlying muscle weakness seen in myasthenia gravis.
A patient with diabetes insipidus is prescribed desmopressin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase urine output
- B. Reduce blood sugar levels
- C. Decrease urine output
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Desmopressin is a synthetic form of vasopressin used to replace the hormone in diabetes insipidus. The primary purpose is to decrease urine output by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby reducing excessive urination and preventing dehydration. Choice A is incorrect as desmopressin actually decreases urine output. Choice B is incorrect as desmopressin does not directly affect blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as desmopressin does not primarily lower blood pressure.