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A patient with end-stage heart failure is experiencing consaibdirebr.caobmle/te dsty spnea. What is the appropriate pharmacological management of this symptom ?
- A. Administration of 6 mg of midazolam and initiation of a continuous midazolam infusion.
- B. Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initia tion of a continuous morphine infusion.
- C. Hourly increases of the midazolam (Versed) infusion b y 100% dose increments.
- D. Hourly increases of the morphine infusion by 100% dose increments.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties.
Step-by-step rationale:
1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort.
2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea.
3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea.
4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario.
5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as
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The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agent to facilitate ventilation with non-traditional m odes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide what outcome?
- A. Lessened antianxiety
- B. Complete analgesia.
- C. High levels of sedation.
- D. No sedation or analgesia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: No sedation or analgesia. Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide sedation or pain relief; they solely act on skeletal muscles to induce paralysis for procedures like intubation. Choice A is incorrect because NMB agents do not affect anxiety levels. Choice B is incorrect because NMB agents do not provide analgesia. Choice C is incorrect because NMB agents do not induce sedation. The primary purpose of NMB agents is to induce muscle paralysis without affecting consciousness or pain perception.
The nurse is assessing a child's weight and height during a clinic visit prior to starting school. The nurse plots the child's weight on the growth chart and notes that the child's weight is in the 95th percentile for the child's height. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day.
- B. Encourage giving two additional snacks each day to the child.
- C. Recommend a daily intake of at least four glasses of whole milk.
- D. Assess for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Question the type and quantity of foods eaten in a typical day. When a child's weight is in the 95th percentile for their height, it indicates possible overweight or obesity. To address this, the nurse should assess the child's dietary habits to identify any unhealthy eating patterns contributing to excess weight. By questioning the type and quantity of foods eaten, the nurse can provide appropriate guidance on nutrition and healthy eating habits.
Summary:
B: Encouraging additional snacks may further contribute to weight gain and is not recommended without knowing the current eating habits.
C: Recommending a high intake of whole milk may increase calorie intake and potentially worsen the weight concern.
D: Assessing for signs of poor nutrition, such as a pale appearance, is important but not directly addressing the weight concern in this scenario.
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory dist ress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The primary care provider (PCP) orders a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and aabnirba.lcgoems/tieas,t the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the PCP of this assessment and anticipates what order?
- A. Continuous lateral rotation therapy
- B. Guided imagery
- C. Neuromuscular blockade
- D. Prone positioning
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neuromuscular blockade.
1. Neuromuscular blockade helps to achieve optimal ventilator synchrony by reducing patient-ventilator asynchrony and improving oxygenation in patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
2. Despite sedation, the patient's restlessness and discomfort suggest inadequate ventilator synchrony, which can be addressed by neuromuscular blockade.
3. Continuous lateral rotation therapy (A) and prone positioning (D) are interventions for improving ventilation and oxygenation in ARDS but do not directly address patient-ventilator synchrony.
4. Guided imagery (B) is a non-pharmacological technique for relaxation and pain management, which may not address the underlying issue of ventilator synchrony in this case.
The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who is experiencing pain that is continuous and severe. How should the nurse schedule the administration of opioid pain medications?
- A. Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics.
- B. Provide PRN doses of medication whenever the patient requests.
- C. Offer enough pain medication to keep the patient sedated.
- D. Suggest analgesic doses that provide pain control without decreasing respiratory rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics. This is the best approach for managing continuous and severe pain in a terminally ill patient. By providing scheduled doses of opioid pain medications, the nurse ensures a consistent level of pain relief, preventing peaks and troughs in pain control. This approach also helps in preventing the patient from experiencing unnecessary suffering.
Choice B (PRN doses) may lead to inadequate pain control as the patient may wait too long before requesting medication. Choice C (keeping the patient sedated) is not appropriate as the goal is pain management, not sedation. Choice D (balancing pain control and respiratory rate) is important, but the priority should be on effectively managing the pain first.
A statement that provides a legally recognized descriptiona obifrb a.cno min/tedsitv idual’s desires regarding care at the end of life is referred to as what?
- A. Advance directive
- B. Guardianship ad item
- C. Healthcare proxy
- D. Power of attorney
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directive. An advance directive is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment and care at the end of life. It allows individuals to specify their preferences for medical interventions if they become unable to communicate.
Summary of other choices:
B: Guardianship ad item - This does not specifically pertain to an individual's end-of-life care wishes.
C: Healthcare proxy - While similar to an advance directive, a healthcare proxy specifically designates a person to make medical decisions on behalf of the individual, rather than specifying their own wishes.
D: Power of attorney - This grants someone the authority to make legal decisions on behalf of the individual, but it does not specifically address end-of-life care preferences.