Nokea
A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. The nurse understands that buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it:
- A. Has a high potential for abuse.
- B. Works immediately to relieve anxiety.
- C. Does not cause sedation.
- D. Is used for short-term treatment only.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it does not cause sedation. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone has a lower potential for abuse and does not cause the sedative effects commonly seen with benzodiazepines. While benzodiazepines may work immediately to relieve anxiety, buspirone may take longer to show its therapeutic effects. Additionally, buspirone is not limited to short-term treatment only, making it a preferred choice in patients where sedation is a concern or in those with a history of substance abuse.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. The most appropriate intervention is to:
- A. Encourage the patient to talk about the trauma.
- B. Help the patient reorient to the present.
- C. Leave the patient alone to process the flashback.
- D. Remind the patient that the flashback is not real.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks, the most appropriate intervention is to help them reorient to the present. This intervention can assist in reducing the intensity of the flashback and providing a sense of safety for the patient. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the patient to talk about the trauma during a flashback may exacerbate their distress. Choice C is incorrect as leaving the patient alone can increase their feelings of isolation and fear. Choice D is incorrect because reminding the patient that the flashback is not real may invalidate their experience and increase their sense of disconnection.
A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?
- A. Group therapy
- B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- C. Psychoanalysis
- D. Family therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.
A patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly associated with sexual dysfunction as a side effect. This adverse effect includes decreased libido, delayed orgasm, and erectile dysfunction. Educating patients about this potential side effect is crucial to manage expectations and consider appropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as SSRIs are not typically associated with hypertension, diarrhea, or weight gain as common side effects.
A healthcare professional is teaching a patient about relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which technique is the healthcare professional most likely to recommend?
- A. Deep breathing exercises
- B. Physical exercise
- C. Mindfulness meditation
- D. Journaling
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Deep breathing exercises are a widely recommended technique for managing anxiety and promoting relaxation. By focusing on deep, slow breaths, individuals can activate the body's relaxation response, leading to decreased anxiety levels and an overall sense of calm. This technique is easy to learn, can be practiced anywhere, and is often suggested by healthcare professionals as a first-line approach for anxiety management. Physical exercise, mindfulness meditation, and journaling are also beneficial for mental well-being but may not be the first choice when specifically targeting acute anxiety management.
A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to:
- A. Reduce anxiety symptoms
- B. Improve mood
- C. Increase energy levels
- D. Enhance social interactions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce anxiety symptoms. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is primarily used to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety, such as rapid heartbeat and trembling, in patients with social anxiety disorder. It does not directly affect mood, energy levels, or social interactions. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not target mood improvement. Choice C is incorrect because propranolol does not aim to increase energy levels. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not enhance social interactions; its primary role is in reducing physical symptoms of anxiety.