Nokea
A patient with glaucoma is prescribed timolol eye drops. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Reduce intraocular pressure
- B. Dilate the pupils
- C. Constrict the pupils
- D. Enhance tear production
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce intraocular pressure. Timolol is a beta-blocker that works by decreasing the production of aqueous humor in the eye, thereby reducing intraocular pressure. This action helps to prevent damage to the optic nerve in patients with glaucoma. Choices B and C are incorrect because timolol does not affect pupil size. Choice D is incorrect because timolol does not enhance tear production; in fact, it may have a drying effect on the eyes.
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For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?
- A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
- B. Prevent asthma attacks
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol is to prevent asthma attacks. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist that helps to relax the muscles of the airways over an extended period, reducing the likelihood of bronchospasms and asthma exacerbations. It is not used for relieving acute bronchospasm (choice A), suppressing cough (choice C), or thinning respiratory secretions (choice D) as these are not the main therapeutic effects of salmeterol in asthma management.
A patient with chronic pain is prescribed gabapentin. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Relieve neuropathic pain
- B. Reduce inflammation
- C. Enhance opioid analgesia
- D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relieve neuropathic pain. Gabapentin is commonly used to treat neuropathic pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. It is effective in conditions such as diabetic neuropathy and postherpetic neuralgia. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Choice C is incorrect as gabapentin does not enhance opioid analgesia, but it can be used in conjunction with opioids for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as gabapentin is not indicated for cough suppression.
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic side effects, including weight gain. This is important to monitor as it can lead to various health issues such as diabetes and cardiovascular problems. Hypertension (A), hypoglycemia (C), and bradycardia (D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use, making them less likely side effects to monitor in this case.
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase cardiac output
- B. Reduce fluid retention
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease heart rate. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate. This helps reduce the workload of the heart and improve its efficiency in patients with heart failure. Choice A is incorrect because carvedilol may not necessarily increase cardiac output directly. Choice B is incorrect because carvedilol focuses more on improving heart function rather than directly reducing fluid retention. Choice D is incorrect because while carvedilol may lower blood pressure as a secondary effect, its primary purpose in heart failure is to improve cardiac function by decreasing heart rate.
A client is on a mechanical ventilator. Which client response indicates that the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride (Tubarine) is effective?
- A. The client's extremities are paralyzed.
- B. The peripheral nerve stimulator causes twitching.
- C. The client clenches fist upon command.
- D. The client's Glasgow Coma Scale score is 14.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the neuromuscular blocker tubocurarine chloride causes muscle paralysis, leading to the extremities being paralyzed. This indicates that the medication is effectively blocking neuromuscular transmission.
B: Twitching with peripheral nerve stimulation indicates incomplete blockade.
C: Clenching fist upon command indicates preserved muscle strength.
D: Glasgow Coma Scale measures level of consciousness, not neuromuscular blockade.