Nokea
A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypoglycemia (B) is not a common side effect of lisinopril. Bradycardia (C) and constipation (D) are also not typically associated with lisinopril use. Hyperkalemia is the most critical side effect to monitor in this case.
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When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?
- A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
- B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
- C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
- D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because surgical correction of hypospadias is typically recommended before the child is potty-trained. This is important for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes, as the procedure is more straightforward in infants due to their smaller anatomy. Delaying the surgery can lead to increased risk of complications and potential psychological impact on the child as they grow older.
A: Repair within one month to prevent bladder infections is not the primary reason for early correction of hypospadias.
C: Delaying the repair to school age for reducing castration fears is not a valid reason for postponing the surgery.
D: Waiting until after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra repair is not recommended as early correction typically yields better results.
A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Increase cardiac output
- B. Reduce fluid retention
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease heart rate. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to a decrease in heart rate. This helps reduce the workload of the heart and improve its efficiency in patients with heart failure. Choice A is incorrect because carvedilol may not necessarily increase cardiac output directly. Choice B is incorrect because carvedilol focuses more on improving heart function rather than directly reducing fluid retention. Choice D is incorrect because while carvedilol may lower blood pressure as a secondary effect, its primary purpose in heart failure is to improve cardiac function by decreasing heart rate.
For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?
- A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
- B. Prevent asthma attacks
- C. Suppress cough
- D. Thin respiratory secretions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol is to prevent asthma attacks. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist that helps to relax the muscles of the airways over an extended period, reducing the likelihood of bronchospasms and asthma exacerbations. It is not used for relieving acute bronchospasm (choice A), suppressing cough (choice C), or thinning respiratory secretions (choice D) as these are not the main therapeutic effects of salmeterol in asthma management.
The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain during coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the muscles involved in coughing, leading to diminished cough effort. This can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications. Pain during coughing (choice A) may occur but is not the primary cause of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. Thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not as directly related to the underlying muscle weakness seen in myasthenia gravis.
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic side effects, including weight gain. This is important to monitor as it can lead to various health issues such as diabetes and cardiovascular problems. Hypertension (A), hypoglycemia (C), and bradycardia (D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use, making them less likely side effects to monitor in this case.