Nokea
A patient with pancreatic cancer has been admitted to the critical care unit with clinical signs consistent with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse anticipates that clinical management of this condition will include
- A. administration of 3% normal saline.
- B. administration of exogenous vasopressin.
- C. fluid restriction.
- D. low sodium diet.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) leads to excess water retention, diluting sodium levels in the blood.
Step 2: Fluid restriction is the mainstay of treatment to prevent further dilution of sodium.
Step 3: Administering 3% normal saline (choice A) can worsen the condition by further increasing sodium levels.
Step 4: Exogenous vasopressin (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by increasing water retention.
Step 5: Low sodium diet (choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority.
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An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that
- A. peritoneal dialysis is time intensive.
- B. a decreased risk of peritonitis exists.
- C. biochemical disturbances are corrected rapidly.
- D. the danger of hemorrhage is minimal.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. Peritoneal dialysis involves using the peritoneum as a membrane for fluid exchange, reducing the risk of infections like peritonitis compared to hemodialysis. Option A is incorrect as peritoneal dialysis can be done at home and is less time-consuming than hemodialysis. Option C is incorrect as biochemical disturbances are corrected more gradually with peritoneal dialysis. Option D is incorrect as there is a risk of bleeding complications with peritoneal dialysis.
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
- A. has been on aminoglycosides for the past 6 days
- B. has a history of controlled hypertension with a blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg
- C. was discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy of 2 weeks
- D. has a history of fluid overload as a result of heart failure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient was recently discharged after a prolonged course of aminoglycoside therapy, which is a known risk factor for acute kidney injury due to its nephrotoxic effects. Choice A is incorrect because although aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury, the duration of therapy is shorter in this case. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension is not a significant risk factor for acute kidney injury. Choice D is incorrect because fluid overload from heart failure may lead to other complications but is not directly associated with acute kidney injury.
In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,
- A. it is not possible to determine the GFR.
- B. the BUN may be used to determine renal function.
- C. an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio can be used.
- D. a standardized formula may be used to calculate GFR.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because if a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate the GFR. This is typically done using the patient's serum creatinine level, age, sex, and race. It is a validated method when direct measurement is not feasible.
A: Incorrect. It is still possible to estimate GFR using formulas when 24-hour urine collection is not possible.
B: Incorrect. BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function.
C: Incorrect. BUN/Creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by other factors.
The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas shows that the patient’s pH is 19, with a PCO of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to
- A. administer morphine to slow the respiratory rate.
- B. prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- C. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. cancel tomorrow’s dialysis session.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. The patient's arterial blood gas results indicate metabolic acidosis (low pH, low bicarbonate) with respiratory compensation (low PCO). In this scenario, the patient is likely experiencing respiratory fatigue due to tachypnea from metabolic acidosis. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are needed to support the patient's respiratory effort and correct the acid-base imbalance. Administering morphine (choice A) can further depress the respiratory drive. Administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate (choice C) can temporarily correct the pH but does not address the underlying respiratory distress. Canceling dialysis (choice D) is not indicated as it does not address the acute respiratory compromise.
Which of the following is a high-priority nursing diagnosis for both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
- A. Activity intolerance
- B. Fluid volume deficient
- C. Hyperthermia
- D. Impaired nutrition, more than body requirements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficient. Both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome can lead to severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Addressing fluid volume deficiency is crucial to stabilize the patient's condition. Choice A is not the priority as the main concern is the fluid imbalance, not activity intolerance. Hyperthermia (choice C) may be present but is not the primary concern compared to fluid volume deficit. Impaired nutrition (choice D) is not the immediate priority in these emergency situations. In summary, maintaining fluid balance is essential to manage both conditions effectively.