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A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing nightmares. Which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Encouraging the patient to journal before bedtime
- B. Teaching relaxation techniques
- C. Avoiding discussing the nightmares directly
- D. Developing a safety plan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teaching relaxation techniques. This intervention is effective in managing PTSD-related nightmares by helping the patient reduce anxiety and promote better sleep. Relaxation techniques, such as deep breathing and progressive muscle relaxation, can calm the nervous system and improve sleep quality. Encouraging the patient to journal before bedtime (Choice A) may help with processing emotions but may not directly address the nightmares. Avoiding discussing the nightmares directly (Choice C) can lead to avoidance behaviors and hinder the therapeutic process. Developing a safety plan (Choice D) is important for overall safety but does not specifically target the nightmares.
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When assessing a patient with major depressive disorder, which of the following is a common cognitive symptom?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Delusions
- C. Lack of appetite
- D. Negative self-talk
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Negative self-talk. In major depressive disorder, negative self-talk is a common cognitive symptom known as cognitive distortions. This includes thoughts of worthlessness, guilt, or self-criticism. This symptom is a key aspect of the cognitive triad in depression. Hallucinations and delusions are more indicative of psychotic disorders, while lack of appetite is a physical symptom commonly seen in depression but not a cognitive symptom. In summary, negative self-talk is the correct answer as it directly relates to the cognitive distortions commonly seen in major depressive disorder.
Which medication is commonly used to treat both major depressive disorder and neuropathic pain?
- A. Gabapentin
- B. Duloxetine
- C. Amitriptyline
- D. Tramadol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Duloxetine. Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor used to treat both major depressive disorder and neuropathic pain by increasing the levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain. Gabapentin (A) is primarily used for neuropathic pain, Amitriptyline (C) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for depression and neuropathic pain, and Tramadol (D) is an opioid analgesic used for pain management but not typically for major depressive disorder.
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication?
- A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
- B. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- C. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I should take this medication on an as-needed basis.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Consistency in medication timing helps maintain a steady blood level for effectiveness.
2. Following a regular schedule improves adherence and reduces the risk of missing doses.
3. Ensures optimal therapeutic effects and minimizes potential side effects.
4. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as stopping abruptly, mixing with alcohol, or taking as needed can lead to relapse, reduced efficacy, or increased risk of side effects.
Which medication is often prescribed for patients with bipolar disorder to help stabilize mood?
- A. Sertraline
- B. Lithium
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Diazepam
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lithium. Lithium is often prescribed for patients with bipolar disorder because it helps stabilize mood by regulating neurotransmitter activity. It is a mood stabilizer that is effective in reducing manic episodes and preventing relapses. Sertraline (A) is an antidepressant and can potentially trigger manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder. Haloperidol (C) is an antipsychotic used for treating psychotic symptoms but not specifically for stabilizing mood in bipolar disorder. Diazepam (D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not indicated for mood stabilization in bipolar disorder.
A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa. Which finding is most concerning?
- A. Mild bradycardia
- B. Electrolyte imbalances
- C. Slight hypotension
- D. Lanugo
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Electrolyte imbalances. In anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias and even sudden death. This is the most concerning finding as it directly impacts the patient's health and can be life-threatening. Bradycardia (choice A) is common in anorexia but usually reversible with treatment. Slight hypotension (choice C) may occur due to dehydration but can be managed. Lanugo (choice D) is a reversible side effect of malnutrition and not as concerning as electrolyte imbalances.