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A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
- A. gastrointestinal upset.
- B. effects of magnesium sulfate.
- C. anxiety caused by hospitalization.
- D. worsening disease and impending convulsion.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications.
A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented.
B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms.
C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.
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The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
- A. Fatigue related to altered metabolic processes
- B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia
- C. Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response
- D. Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response. This is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient preparing for hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) because the patient's immune system will be severely compromised post-transplant, leading to a high risk of infections. It is crucial to prioritize infection prevention to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because while fatigue is common in cancer patients, it is not the priority in this case where infection risk is higher. Choice B is incorrect as altered nutrition can be addressed after managing the risk for infection. Choice D is incorrect as body image disturbance is important but not as critical as preventing infections in this highly vulnerable patient population.
A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
- A. Smoking is the reason you are here.
- B. The doctor left orders for you not to smoke.
- C. You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?
- D. Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?" This response acknowledges the patient's anxiety and invites him to explore his reasons for wanting to smoke, opening up a dialogue and potentially uncovering underlying issues. It also avoids judgment or direct orders, fostering a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: "Smoking is the reason you are here." - This response is blaming and may increase the patient's guilt or anxiety, hindering effective communication.
B: "The doctor left orders for you not to smoke." - This response is authoritative and may lead to resistance or defensiveness from the patient, rather than addressing his concerns.
D: "Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated." - This response is unclear and may send mixed messages to the patient, potentially leading to confusion or misunderstanding.
A nurse providing prenatal care to a pregnant woman is addressing measures to reduce her postpartum risk of cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse. What action should the nurse recommend?
- A. Maintenance of good perineal hygiene
- B. Prevention of constipation
- C. Increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum
- D. Performance of pelvic muscle exercises Chapter 58: Breast Cancer: Breast cancer – risks factors, Diagnostic tests and management, Self Breast Exam, Perioperative care: Complications, Rehab, Discharge teaching
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, performance of pelvic muscle exercises. Pelvic muscle exercises, also known as Kegel exercises, help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles which support the bladder, uterus, and bowel. By strengthening these muscles, the risk of developing cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse postpartum is reduced. It is a proactive approach to prevent these conditions.
Choice A, maintenance of good perineal hygiene, is important for preventing infections but does not specifically address the risk of pelvic organ prolapse. Choice B, prevention of constipation, is also important but does not directly target the muscle weakness that contributes to prolapse. Choice C, increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum, is not as effective in preventing prolapse as pelvic muscle exercises.
In summary, pelvic muscle exercises are the most appropriate recommendation as they directly address strengthening the muscles that support the pelvic organs, reducing the risk of prolapse postpartum.
A nurse is preparing to lavage a patient in theemergency department for an overdose. Which tube should the nurse obtain?
- A. Ewald
- B. Dobhoff
- C. Miller-Abbott
- D. Sengstaken-Blakemore
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ewald tube. This tube is used for gastric lavage due to its large diameter and open end which allows for effective suction of gastric contents. The Ewald tube is specifically designed for gastric lavage and is ideal for removing toxins from the stomach.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Dobhoff tube is a small-bore feeding tube, not suitable for gastric lavage.
C: Miller-Abbott tube is used for intestinal decompression, not gastric lavage.
D: Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used for esophageal varices, not gastric lavage.
A student nurse is doing clinical hours at an OB/GYN clinic. The student is helping to develop a plan of care for a patient with gonorrhea who has presented at the clinic. The student should include which of the following in the care plan for this patient?
- A. The patient may benefit from oral contraceptives.
- B. The patient must avoid use of tampons.
- C. The patient is susceptible to urinary incontinence.
- D. The patient should also be treated for chlamydia.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - The patient should also be treated for chlamydia.
Rationale:
1. Gonorrhea and chlamydia often coexist, so it is crucial to treat both infections to prevent complications.
2. Treating only gonorrhea may not fully resolve the patient's symptoms or prevent reinfection.
3. Dual therapy for gonorrhea and chlamydia is recommended to ensure optimal care for the patient.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: The patient may benefit from oral contraceptives - This is not directly related to the treatment of gonorrhea.
B: The patient must avoid use of tampons - This is not a standard recommendation for managing gonorrhea.
C: The patient is susceptible to urinary incontinence - This is not a typical complication of gonorrhea.