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A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
- A. diuretic.
- B. tocolytic.
- C. anticonvulsant.
- D. antihypertensive.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.
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The patient is to receive multiple medications via the nasogastric tube. The nurse is concerned that the tube may become clogged. Which action isbestfor the nurseto take?
- A. Instill nonliquid medications without diluting.
- B. Irrigate the tube with 60 mL of water after all medications are given.
- C. Mix all medications together to decrease the number of administrations.
- D. Check with the pharmacy for availability of the liquid forms of medications.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D): Checking with the pharmacy for availability of liquid forms of medications is the best action because it reduces the risk of clogging the nasogastric tube. Liquid medications are less likely to cause blockages compared to nonliquid medications. Additionally, liquid forms are easier to administer through the tube. By using liquid medications, the nurse can ensure that the medications flow smoothly through the tube without causing any obstructions.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Instilling nonliquid medications without diluting can increase the risk of tube clogging.
B: Irrigating the tube with water after all medications are given may not prevent clogging effectively and could introduce unnecessary moisture into the tube.
C: Mixing all medications together can lead to potential drug interactions and may not address the issue of tube clogging effectively.
The nurse is providing nutrition education to a Korean patient using the five food groups. In doing so, what should be the focus of the teaching?
- A. Discouraging the patient’s ethnic food choices
- B. Changing the patient’s diet to a more conventional American diet
- C. Including racial and ethnic practices with food preferences of the patient
- D. Comparing the patient’s ethnic preferences with American dietary choices
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it emphasizes cultural competence and respect for the patient's background. By including racial and ethnic practices with food preferences of the patient, the nurse can provide tailored and relevant nutrition education. This approach promotes inclusivity and acknowledges the importance of cultural traditions in dietary habits. Choices A and B are incorrect as they disregard the patient's cultural background and may lead to cultural insensitivity. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses on comparison rather than understanding and incorporating the patient's unique cultural context. Overall, choice C aligns with patient-centered care and facilitates effective communication and trust between the nurse and the patient.
Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the
- A. fetus is Rh-negative.
- B. fetus is Rh-positive.
- C. father is Rh-positive.
- D. father and fetus are both Rh-negative.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. If fetal blood enters the mother's circulation during pregnancy or childbirth, the mother's immune system can produce antibodies against Rh-positive red blood cells, leading to potential harm to future pregnancies. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Rh incompatibility does not occur when the fetus is Rh-negative, the father is Rh-positive, or both the father and fetus are Rh-negative.
A gerontologic nurse is advocating for diagnostic testing of an 81-year-old patient who is experiencing personality changes. The nurse is aware of what factor that is known to affect the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in older adults?
- A. The effects of brain tumors are often attributed to the cognitive effects of aging.
- B. Brain tumors in older adults do not normally produce focal effects.
- C. Older adults typically have numerous benign brain tumors by the eighth decade of life.
- D. Brain tumors cannot normally be treated in patient over age
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cognitive effects of aging can mimic symptoms of brain tumors in older adults, leading to misdiagnosis or delayed diagnosis. Aging can also affect the presentation, progression, and treatment outcomes of brain tumors. Option B is incorrect as brain tumors in older adults can indeed produce focal effects. Option C is incorrect as not all older adults have numerous benign brain tumors, and this is not a factor affecting the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in this case. Option D is incorrect as age alone does not preclude treatment for brain tumors.
The nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with brain metastases. The nurse decides that an appropriate nursing diagnosis is anxiety related to lack of control over the health circumstances. In establishing this plan of care for the patient, the nurse should include what intervention?
- A. The patient will receive antianxiety medications every 4 hours.
- B. The patients family will be instructed on planning the patients care.
- C. The patient will be encouraged to verbalize concerns related to the disease and its treatment.
- D. The patient will begin intensive therapy with the goal of distraction.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to verbalize concerns can help alleviate anxiety by allowing the patient to express emotions and fears. This intervention promotes emotional expression and provides an outlet for the patient to discuss their worries. This can lead to increased understanding and support.
Incorrect answers:
A: Administering antianxiety medications does not address the underlying cause of anxiety and may lead to dependency.
B: Instructing the family on planning care does not directly address the patient's anxiety.
D: Distracting the patient may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of anxiety related to lack of control over health circumstances.