Nokea
A patient with severe anemia is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulate white blood cell production
- B. Increase platelet count
- C. Promote red blood cell production
- D. Enhance clotting factor production
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promote red blood cell production. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, helping to treat anemia. It does not stimulate white blood cell production (A), increase platelet count (B), or enhance clotting factor production (D). White blood cells are involved in the immune response, platelets are responsible for clotting, and clotting factors are proteins involved in the blood clotting process. Therefore, the primary action of erythropoietin is to specifically target red blood cell production to address anemia.
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What is the primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis?
- A. Decreased bile production
- B. Increased bilirubin levels
- C. Hepatic inflammation
- D. Portal hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis is increased bilirubin levels. Liver cirrhosis impairs the liver's ability to process bilirubin, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream. This excess bilirubin then causes the yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes characteristic of jaundice.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Decreased bile production is not the primary cause of jaundice in liver cirrhosis. While decreased bile flow may contribute to jaundice, it is secondary to the impaired bilirubin processing.
C: Hepatic inflammation is a common feature of liver cirrhosis but is not the direct cause of jaundice in this context.
D: Portal hypertension is a complication of liver cirrhosis but is not the primary cause of jaundice.
When caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy, why is a low-protein diet recommended by the nurse?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Increased ammonia levels
- D. Electrolyte imbalance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased ammonia levels. In hepatic encephalopathy, the liver is unable to metabolize ammonia into urea, leading to increased ammonia levels in the blood. A low-protein diet helps reduce ammonia production in the gut, thereby decreasing ammonia levels in the blood and improving symptoms. Hyperglycemia (A) and hypoglycemia (B) are not directly related to the rationale for a low-protein diet in hepatic encephalopathy. Electrolyte imbalance (D) is not specifically addressed by a low-protein diet in this context.
In a client with liver cirrhosis experiencing confusion and disorientation, what condition is most likely causing these symptoms?
- A. Hepatic encephalopathy
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Electrolyte imbalance
- D. Dehydration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatic encephalopathy. In liver cirrhosis, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. This excess ammonia crosses the blood-brain barrier, causing neurological symptoms like confusion and disorientation. Hypoglycemia (B), electrolyte imbalance (C), and dehydration (D) can also contribute to altered mental status, but in a cirrhotic patient, hepatic encephalopathy is the most likely cause due to impaired ammonia metabolism.
When implementing patient teaching for a patient admitted with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus scheduled for discharge the second day after admission, what is the priority action for the nurse?
- A. Instruct about the increased risk for cardiovascular disease.
- B. Provide detailed information about dietary control of glucose.
- C. Teach glucose self-monitoring and medication administration.
- D. Give information about the effects of exercise on glucose control.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because teaching glucose self-monitoring and medication administration is the priority action to ensure the patient can manage their condition effectively post-discharge. This step is crucial for immediate management of hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus. Option A is incorrect as addressing cardiovascular risk can be important but not the immediate priority. Option B is important but not as urgent as self-monitoring and medication administration. Option D is also important for long-term management but not as critical as ensuring immediate control of blood glucose levels through monitoring and medication.
The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?
- A. Drowsiness.
- B. Itching.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine that can lead to respiratory arrest. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further complications, such as hypoxia and respiratory failure. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not life-threatening like respiratory depression. Monitoring and managing respiratory status is the top priority to ensure the client's safety and well-being.