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A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to:
- A. Reduce anxiety symptoms
- B. Improve mood
- C. Increase energy levels
- D. Enhance social interactions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce anxiety symptoms. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is primarily used to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety, such as rapid heartbeat and trembling, in patients with social anxiety disorder. It does not directly affect mood, energy levels, or social interactions. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not target mood improvement. Choice C is incorrect because propranolol does not aim to increase energy levels. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not enhance social interactions; its primary role is in reducing physical symptoms of anxiety.
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A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?
- A. Group therapy
- B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- C. Psychoanalysis
- D. Family therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.
When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits disorganized speech and behavior, these symptoms are classified as:
- A. Positive symptoms
- B. Negative symptoms
- C. Cognitive symptoms
- D. Mood symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Positive symptoms in schizophrenia refer to excesses or distortions in normal behavior and include symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech and behavior. Disorganized speech and behavior are considered positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal behavior, cognitive symptoms affect thinking processes, and mood symptoms relate to emotional experiences. Therefore, in this scenario, the disorganized speech and behavior exhibited by the patient are classified as positive symptoms.
For a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior, which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Supportive therapy
- D. Pharmacotherapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate therapeutic approach for a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT). DBT is specifically designed to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder, including self-harming behaviors. It focuses on teaching patients skills to manage emotions, improve interpersonal relationships, and enhance distress tolerance. Psychoanalysis (Choice B) is not the most appropriate for immediate symptom management in this case. Supportive therapy (Choice C) may not provide the structured approach needed to address self-harming behaviors effectively. Pharmacotherapy (Choice D) may be used as an adjunct in some cases, but DBT is the frontline therapy for managing self-harming behaviors in borderline personality disorder.
A patient with panic disorder is prescribed a benzodiazepine. The nurse should educate the patient that this medication is typically used for:
- A. For long-term maintenance therapy.
- B. As a first-line treatment.
- C. For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.
- D. To treat depression symptoms.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.' Benzodiazepines are usually prescribed for short-term relief of anxiety symptoms due to the risk of dependence. Prolonged use can lead to tolerance, dependence, and other adverse effects, so they are not typically used for long-term maintenance therapy (choice A). They are not considered first-line treatments for panic disorder (choice B) and are not primarily used to treat depression symptoms (choice D), as their main indication is for anxiety and panic disorders.
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hair loss
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is a common side effect of olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain. Monitoring weight regularly is essential to detect and manage this side effect to prevent associated health risks such as diabetes and cardiovascular issues.
Hypotension (choice B) is not a common side effect of olanzapine. Olanzapine is more likely to cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Hair loss (choice C) and hyperthyroidism (choice D) are not typically associated with olanzapine use.