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A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine. What is the primary characteristic of this insulin?
- A. Rapid-acting
- B. Intermediate-acting
- C. Long-acting
- D. Short-acting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin due to its slow and consistent release, providing basal insulin coverage for about 24 hours. This steady release mimics the body's natural basal insulin secretion pattern. Rapid-acting insulins (A) work quickly to control postprandial glucose levels. Intermediate-acting insulins (B) have a slower onset and last for a moderate duration. Short-acting insulins (D) act quickly but have a shorter duration of action compared to long-acting insulins.
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When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?
- A. Two staff members are overheard talking about a cure for AIDS outside a client's room.
- B. A hospital transporter is reading a client's history and physical while waiting for an elevator.
- C. A UAP tells a client, 'It's hard to quit drinking but Alcoholics Anonymous helped me.'
- D. Two visitors are discussing a hospitalized client's history of drug abuse in the visitor's lounge.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it violates patient confidentiality. Reading a client's history and physical in a public area breaches the client's privacy rights. The other choices do not directly compromise patient confidentiality. A involves discussing a cure for AIDS, which is not a breach of confidentiality. C involves sharing personal experiences with the client, and D involves discussing a client's history of drug abuse in a visitor's lounge, which may not be overheard by the client or staff directly involved in the client's care.
A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. This is because warfarin is a medication that affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. PT/INR is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. PT measures how long it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes the PT results. Monitoring PT/INR helps to ensure that the patient is within the target therapeutic range for anticoagulation.
Incorrect choices:
A: Complete blood count (CBC) - CBC does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
C: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) - PTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Serum potassium level - Monitoring serum potassium level is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.
While assessing a 70-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease, the nurse notes deep inflamed cracks at the corners of her mouth. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Apply a moisturizing cream to the affected areas.
- B. Encourage the client to consume foods rich in vitamin B.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
- D. Ensure that the client gets adequate B vitamins in foods or supplements.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep inflamed cracks at the corners of the mouth can be a sign of vitamin B deficiency, specifically B2 (riboflavin) or B3 (niacin). Ensuring the client gets adequate B vitamins through foods or supplements can help address the deficiency and improve the condition. Option A is incorrect as simply applying a moisturizing cream does not address the underlying cause. Option B is not the best choice because while vitamin B-rich foods are beneficial, they may not be sufficient to correct a deficiency. Option C is not the immediate priority unless there are other concerning symptoms present.
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed calcium acetate. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. Treat hyperkalemia
- B. Reduce phosphate levels
- C. Lower blood pressure
- D. Increase hemoglobin levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate for a patient with CKD is to reduce phosphate levels. Calcium acetate acts as a phosphate binder, preventing the absorption of dietary phosphate in the intestines. Elevated phosphate levels in CKD can lead to complications such as mineral and bone disorders. Treating hyperkalemia (A) involves other medications like potassium binders, not calcium acetate. Lowering blood pressure (C) typically involves antihypertensive drugs. Increasing hemoglobin levels (D) is usually managed with erythropoiesis-stimulating agents in CKD patients. Therefore, option B is the correct answer for the primary purpose of prescribing calcium acetate in CKD patients.
A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
- C. Take the medication with meals.
- D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C:
1. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal side effects.
2. Taking it with meals helps reduce stomach upset.
3. It also helps in better absorption and effectiveness.
4. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the patient to take metformin with meals.
Summary of other choices:
A: Taking on an empty stomach can worsen gastrointestinal side effects.
B: Metformin doesn't typically cause hypoglycemia.
D: Increasing simple carbohydrates can counteract the effects of metformin.