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A patient's most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patient's cancer cells spread?
- A. Hematologic spread
- B. Lymphatic circulation
- C. Invasion
- D. Angiogenesis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lung cancer loves lymphatics its cells hitch rides via nodes, the most common metastasis route, hitting bones and liver downstream. Blood (hematologic) spread happens too, but lymph's king for lung primaries. Invasion's local creep, not distant jumps. Angiogenesis feeds tumors, not moves them. Nurses track this pattern, knowing lymph drainage from lungs seeds those far-off sites, a grim oncology reality shaping staging and prognosis.
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The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery?
- A. Salvage surgery
- B. Palliative surgery
- C. Prophylactic surgery
- D. Reconstructive surgery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A bilateral mastectomy here is prophylactic removing nonvital breasts to prevent cancer in a high-risk patient with a positive tumor marker and family history. It's about risk reduction, not treatment of existing disease. Salvage surgery tackles recurrence after a less aggressive initial approach, like resecting a regrown tumor. Palliative surgery eases symptoms (e.g., pain from obstruction) in advanced cases, not prevention. Reconstructive surgery restores form or function post-treatment, like breast reconstruction after curative mastectomy. Prophylactic fits this preemptive strike, driven by genetic or familial risk (e.g., BRCA mutations), a growing trend in oncology to outpace cancer's onset, guided by nurses supporting informed, tough choices.
In Europe and the USA, drugs licensed for use in intrathecal drug delivery systems include:
- A. Diamorphine.
- B. Methadone.
- C. Morphine.
- D. Ziconotide.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intrathecal drug delivery systems (IDDS) use specific licensed drugs in Europe and the USA. Morphine is widely approved for its efficacy in cancer and chronic pain, binding spinal opioid receptors with a strong evidence base. Ziconotide, a non-opioid, is also licensed, targeting calcium channels for refractory cases. Diamorphine (heroin) isn't licensed intrathecally; it's used epidurally or systemically in some regions (e.g., UK palliative care) but lacks IDDS approval. Methadone's long half-life and oral efficacy preclude intrathecal use; it's not licensed. Ketamine has experimental use but no formal approval. Morphine's prominence stems from its pharmacokinetic suitability high potency and spinal receptor affinity making it a cornerstone of IDDS therapy alongside ziconotide.
The nurse caring for oncology clients knows that which form of metastasis is the most common?
- A. Bloodborne
- B. Direct invasion
- C. Lymphatic spread
- D. Via bone marrow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metastasis is the process by which cancer spreads from its original site to distant parts of the body, a critical concern in oncology nursing. Among the various mechanisms, bloodborne metastasis is the most common, as cancer cells often enter the bloodstream and travel to organs like the lungs, liver, or brain. This occurs because the circulatory system provides an efficient pathway for tumor cells to disseminate widely, especially in cancers like breast or lung cancer. Lymphatic spread is also frequent, particularly in carcinomas, where cells travel via lymph nodes, but it is less dominant than bloodborne spread across all cancer types. Direct invasion involves cancer growing into adjacent tissues, which is a local process rather than true metastasis. Bone marrow is not a medium for metastasis but a potential site where cancer can settle, such as in leukemia or multiple myeloma. Understanding that bloodborne metastasis predominates helps nurses prioritize monitoring for systemic symptoms and complications, such as organ dysfunction, in clients with advanced cancer.
You are seeing Mr Yee two months later. At your last visit, he did not want colchicine prophylaxis as he did not want to take 'too many tablets'. He has started and is adherent to his urate lowering agent. Last month, his uric acid had decreased to 390 mmol/L. He had a gout flare last week. Hence, he came to your clinic today to ask about colchicine prophylaxis. Which is INCORRECT advice regarding colchicine prophylaxis?
- A. Offer to start colchicine at 500 mcg once daily or alternate days as gout prophylaxis as his renal function is normal
- B. Colchicine can help to reduce the frequency of flares, especially during the first six months of Urate lowering therapy
- C. Tell him that if he is started on NEW medications, he should inform his doctor or pharmacist that he is on colchicine regularly as colchicine can have drug interactions. If unsure and he needs to take NEW medications, such as a short course of antibiotics, he is to omit colchicine until the new medication is completed
- D. Regular colchicine prophylaxis in someone with normal renal function and regular monitoring can lead to renal failure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Colchicine curbs flares 500 mcg fits normal kidneys, cuts attacks in urate-lowering's rocky start, and needs drug interaction flags or skips with gut upset. But renal failure from regular use with monitoring? False colchicine's safe there, not a kidney killer. Clinicians nix this myth, grounding chronic gout aid in truth.
A client is admitted with superior vena cava syndrome. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Administer a dose of allopurinol (Aloprim).
- B. Assess the client's serum potassium level.
- C. Gently inquire about advance directives.
- D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) occurs when cancer (often lung or lymphoma) obstructs the superior vena cava, impairing venous return from the head and upper body. It's often a late-stage manifestation with a poor prognosis, though treatable with radiation or stenting. After stabilizing the client (e.g., with oxygen, positioning), gently inquiring about advance directives is most appropriate, as it opens a compassionate discussion about goals of care amid a potentially terminal condition. Allopurinol and potassium levels relate to tumor lysis syndrome, not SVCS. Surgery is rare for SVCS, with non-invasive options preferred. This action respects the client's autonomy and prepares for realistic outcomes, aligning with oncology nursing's holistic approach to end-of-life care in advanced disease.