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A patient's most recent laboratory results show a slight decrease in potassium. The physician has opted to forego drug therapy but has suggested increasing the patient's dietary intake of potassium. Which of the following would be a good source of potassium?
- A. Apples
- B. Asparagus
- C. Carrots
- D. Bananas
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bananas. Bananas are a good source of potassium, with around 400-500 mg per banana. Potassium is essential for maintaining proper muscle function, nerve signaling, and fluid balance in the body. Increasing dietary intake of potassium can help address a slight decrease in potassium levels without the need for drug therapy. Apples, asparagus, and carrots are not as high in potassium as bananas, making them less effective choices for addressing a potassium deficiency.
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A client at risk for developing hyperkalemia states, 'I love fruit and usually eat it every day, but now I can't because of my high potassium level.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Potatoes and avocados can be substituted for fruit.
- B. If you cook the fruit, the amount of potassium will be lower.
- C. Berries, cherries, apples, and peaches are low in potassium.
- D. You are correct. Fruit is very high in potassium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because berries, cherries, apples, and peaches are indeed low in potassium compared to other fruits. This response acknowledges the client's love for fruits while providing suitable alternatives to manage potassium levels. By choosing these low-potassium fruits, the client can continue enjoying fruits without exacerbating hyperkalemia.
Incorrect options:
A: Potatoes and avocados are high in potassium, so they are not suitable substitutes.
B: Cooking fruit does not significantly reduce its potassium content.
D: This option lacks guidance and does not offer a solution to the client's concern about high potassium levels.
A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
- B. Serum potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L
- C. Blood osmolality of 250 mOsm/L
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why option A is correct:
1. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion leads to decreased sodium reabsorption and increased water excretion.
2. Decreased aldosterone can result in decreased blood volume and BP, leading to decreased urine output.
3. Monitoring urine output is crucial to assess renal function and fluid balance.
4. A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered inadequate and can indicate renal impairment or dehydration.
Summary:
Option A is correct as it directly relates to the mechanism of action of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the expected complications of aldosterone inhibition.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is admitted with moderate dehydration. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent injury while in the hospital?
- A. Ask family members to speak quietly to keep the client calm.
- B. Assess urine color, amount, and specific gravity each day.
- C. Encourage the client to drink at least 1 liter of fluids each shift.
- D. Dangle the client on the bedside before ambulating.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dangling the client on the bedside before ambulating helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and potential falls. This step allows the nurse to assess the client's tolerance to changes in position and reduces the risk of injury.
A: Asking family members to speak quietly does not directly address the prevention of injury related to dehydration.
B: Assessing urine parameters is important for monitoring hydration status but does not directly prevent injury.
C: Encouraging fluid intake is important for rehydration but does not directly address the risk of injury during ambulation.
The ICU nurse is caring for a patient who experienced trauma in a workplace accident. The patient is complaining
of having trouble breathing with abdominal pain. An ABG reveals the following results: pH
7.28, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, HCO3 23 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize the likelihood of what acidbase disorder?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Mixed acidbase disorder
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mixed acid-base disorder. The ABG results show a pH within the acidic range (7.28), indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 is elevated (50 mm Hg), suggesting respiratory acidosis as the primary disorder. However, the HCO3 level is within normal range (23 mEq/L), which is not consistent with compensatory metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, the presence of both respiratory acidosis and normal HCO3 levels indicates a mixed acid-base disorder.
Choice A (Respiratory acidosis) is incorrect because although the patient has an elevated PaCO2, the normal HCO3 level rules out a pure respiratory acidosis. Choice B (Metabolic alkalosis) and C (Respiratory alkalosis) are incorrect as the ABG results do not support these diagnoses.
The nurse is caring for a patient in metabolic alkalosis. The patient has an NG tube to low intermittent suction for a
diagnosis of bowel obstruction. What drug would the nurse expect to find on the medication orders?
- A. Cimetidine
- B. Maalox
- C. Potassium chloride elixir
- D. ) Furosemide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cimetidine. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to excess bicarbonate. Cimetidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist that can help decrease gastric acid production, which can contribute to alkalosis. Maalox (B) is an antacid used to treat acid-related conditions, not alkalosis. Potassium chloride elixir (C) is used to correct potassium imbalances, not directly related to alkalosis. Furosemide (D) is a loop diuretic used to treat fluid retention and edema, not specifically indicated for metabolic alkalosis.