A person is admitted to the antepartum floor for hypertension. The person is Hispanic and speaks fluent English. They tell the nurse they have been seeing a curandero, or traditional healer, for the past several years. What is the best initial response from the nurse?
- A. Ask the patient for a list of all herbs, plants, and special diets they are currently taking.
- B. Educate the person on why adherence to a Western medical treatment plan is better for their health.
- C. Inform the person that the treatment they have been receiving from the curandero is not evidence based.
- D. Tell the person that they are not considering the health of their baby by using these traditions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Understanding the patient's use of traditional healing practices ensures safe integration with Western medicine.
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A nurse in a woman's health clinic is obtaining a health history from a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
- A. Recurrent Cystitis
- B. Frequent Alcohol Use
- C. Use of Oral Contraceptives
- D. Chlamydia Infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is commonly caused by untreated or inadequately treated sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia and gonorrhea. When these infections ascend through the reproductive organs, they can lead to inflammation, scarring, and damage to the reproductive structures, resulting in PID. It is crucial for healthcare providers to identify and treat chlamydia infections promptly to prevent complications like PID. Recurrent cystitis (choice A), frequent alcohol use (choice B), and use of oral contraceptives (choice C) do not directly increase the risk for PID as compared to a sexually transmitted infection like chlamydia.
A patient calls and says she used her diaphragm on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., again on Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and again at 8:00 a.m. She is wondering when she can safely remove it while still having effective contraception. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. 10:00 a.m. Sunday
- B. 2:00 p.m. Sunday
- C. 10:00 p.m. Sunday
- D. 8:00 a.m. Monday
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In general, a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse but no more than 24 hours. Based on the patient's usage times on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and Sunday morning at 8:00 a.m., she can safely remove the diaphragm on Monday morning at 8:00 a.m. This ensures she has used it for the necessary timeframe for effective contraception.
A woman is being treated for preterm labor with magnesium
- A. The nurse is concerned that the patient is experiencing early drug toxicity. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates early toxicity?
- B. Patellar reflexes are weak and absent
- C. RR 16
- D. Fetal HR 120
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct assessment finding that indicates early toxicity related to magnesium sulfate administration is the patient complaining of feeling flushed and warm. These symptoms could indicate that the patient is experiencing magnesium toxicity, which can lead to vasodilation and hypotension. Other signs of magnesium toxicity include decreased deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and loss of consciousness. It's essential for the nurse to recognize these early signs of toxicity and intervene promptly to prevent further complications.
The nurse is monitoring a client in the second stage of labor. What finding indicates the client is ready to push?
- A. Membranes have ruptured.
- B. Cervix is completely dilated.
- C. Client reports back pain.
- D. Contractions are 10 minutes apart.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Complete cervical dilation marks the beginning of the second stage, signaling readiness to push.
Before giving a client oral combination contraceptives, which side effects should the nurse tell the patient to be aware of? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Irregular bleeding
- B. Thick vaginal discharge
- C. Nausea
- D. Breast tenderness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The common side effects of oral combination contraceptives include irregular bleeding, nausea, and breast tenderness. Choice B is incorrect because thick vaginal discharge is not a typical side effect of oral contraceptives.