Nokea
A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
- B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
- C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
- D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.
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What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40-weeks gestation?
- A. Maternal blood pressure.
- B. Level of pain sensation
- C. Station of presenting part.
- D. Variability of fetal heart rate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Following the administration of epidural anesthesia, the most crucial assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct is monitoring maternal blood pressure. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension as a common side effect, which can have significant implications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, close monitoring of maternal blood pressure is essential to detect and manage any hypotensive episodes promptly. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments during labor and delivery, but in this specific scenario of post-epidural anesthesia, monitoring maternal blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential risk of hypotension.
During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don't plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that the risk of inheriting the disorder decreases by 50% with each child the couple has.
- B. Acknowledge that the next child will inherit the disorder since the first child did not.
- C. Encourage the couple to reconsider their decision since the inheritance pattern may be sex-linked.
- D. Confirm that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.
A woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. During assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
- A. Apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort.
- B. Instruct the client to run warm water on her breasts.
- C. Wear a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.
- D. Express small amounts of milk to relieve pressure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After childbirth, engorgement of the breasts can occur, leading to swelling and discomfort. Applying cold compresses helps reduce swelling and provides comfort for engorged breasts. This action can also help with pain relief and promote milk flow regulation. Instructing the client to run warm water on her breasts (Choice B) is incorrect as warm water can increase blood flow and exacerbate swelling. Wearing a loose-fitting bra (Choice C) may provide some comfort, but it does not address the swelling effectively. Expressing small amounts of milk (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of engorgement.
When assessing a client who is at 12-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?
- A. At 16 weeks gestation.
- B. At 20 weeks gestation.
- C. At 24 weeks gestation.
- D. At 30 weeks gestation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best time for the couple to attend childbirth preparation classes is around 30 weeks gestation, which is during the third trimester. Attending classes at this time allows the couple to learn essential information and skills as labor and delivery are approaching, maximizing the benefit of the classes. Option A is too early in the second trimester, and the couple might forget important details by the time labor approaches. Option B is also early in the second trimester, and attending later allows for better preparation. Option C is still in the second trimester, and waiting until the third trimester provides more practical knowledge closer to delivery.
A breastfeeding infant, screened for congenital hypothyroidism, is found to have low levels of thyroxine (T4) and high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best explanation for this finding?
- A. The thyroxine level is low because the TSH level is high.
- B. High thyroxine levels do not normally occur in breastfeeding infants.
- C. The thyroid gland does not produce normal levels of thyroxine for several weeks after birth.
- D. The TSH is high because of the low production of T4 by the thyroid.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: High TSH and low T4 levels indicate that the thyroid gland is not producing enough hormones, which is a sign of congenital hypothyroidism. In this case, the high TSH is a compensatory response by the body to stimulate the thyroid to produce more T4. Choice A is incorrect because TSH does not directly affect T4 levels; rather, it is the other way around where low T4 levels lead to high TSH levels. Choice B is incorrect because high thyroxine levels are not expected in congenital hypothyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as the thyroid gland should be producing normal levels of thyroxine shortly after birth, making this explanation unlikely in the context of congenital hypothyroidism.