Nokea
A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."?
- B. "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."?
- C. "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."?
- D. "Just eat some dry crackers instead."?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to offer to consult with the physician regarding the use of ginger, showing cultural sensitivity. Ginger is known to help relieve nausea, especially in pregnancy. Choice A is the correct answer as it respects the client's preference for a home remedy and involves the physician in the decision-making process. Choice B dismisses the client's preference for a home remedy without exploring its potential benefits. Choice C makes a generalized statement discrediting the effectiveness of herbs, which is not evidence-based and disregards the client's beliefs. Choice D offers an alternative without addressing the client's specific request, failing to acknowledge the client's autonomy and cultural background.
You may also like to solve these questions
Herbal therapy has several indications for use. Primarily, herbal therapy is:
- A. used to treat many common complaints and diseases.
- B. used to promote certain types of low-carb diets.
- C. used as an adjunct to medications.
- D. used to create a diet without salt and carbohydrates.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'used to treat many common complaints and diseases.' Herbal therapy is commonly used to address a variety of health issues and ailments by utilizing natural remedies derived from plants. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because herbal therapy's primary purpose is not to promote specific diets, act as an adjunct to medications, or create specific dietary restrictions, but rather to provide alternative treatment options for various health conditions.
The anemias most often associated with pregnancy are:
- A. folic acid and iron deficiency.
- B. folic acid deficiency and thalassemia.
- C. iron deficiency and thalassemia.
- D. thalassemia and B12 deficiency.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Folic acid and iron deficiency anemia are the most common types of anemia associated with pregnancy. Approximately 50% of pregnant women experience this type of anemia. Iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy typically results from the increased plasma volume, rather than a decrease in iron levels. Moreover, if a woman has iron deficiency anemia before pregnancy, it often worsens during pregnancy. Folic acid deficiency is also prevalent during pregnancy due to the increased demand for this nutrient to support fetal development. Thalassemia and B12 deficiency, while types of anemia, are not as commonly associated with pregnancy compared to folic acid and iron deficiency anemia, making them incorrect choices in this context.
A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?
- A. Cushingoid appearance
- B. Alopecia
- C. Temporary or permanent sterility
- D. Pathologic fractures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.
Why is starting a low CHO diet a contraindication for a client with renal insufficiency?
- A. As long as the client eats a minimum of 30g of CHO/day, there should be no problem.
- B. The client's clinical condition is a contraindication to starting a low CHO diet.
- C. Calcium supplements should be utilized to prevent the development of osteoporosis while on a low CHO diet.
- D. As long as the client eats foods that are high biologic protein sources, a low CHO diet can be followed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with renal insufficiency should not start a low CHO diet because it could result in an increased renal solute load. Clients with renal or liver disease require protein control in their diet to prevent complications. Proteins used must be of high biologic value, and protein intake is usually weight-based. Protein levels may be adjusted based on the client's clinical condition. A minimum level of carbohydrates is needed in the diet to spare protein. Vitamin and mineral supplements might be needed for clients with liver failure. The dietician plays a crucial role in calculating specific nutrient requirements for these clients and monitoring outcomes in conjunction with the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply consuming a minimum amount of carbohydrates does not address the issue of increased renal solute load. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements are not the primary concern when considering a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on the contraindication of a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency rather than just high biologic protein sources.
A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
- A. increased platelet count
- B. increased fibrinogen
- C. decreased fibrin split products
- D. decreased bleeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.