Nokea
A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN's best response?
- A. You cannot prevent getting Group B Strep; you can only treat it.
- B. You should have your partner wear a condom every time you have intercourse.
- C. You should be extra vigilant about hand-washing, especially in the third trimester.
- D. The Group B Strep vaccine is the only proven way to prevent the disease.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the LPN to provide to a pregnant client concerned about preventing Group B Strep is that it cannot be prevented, only treated. Group B Strep is a normal flora found in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of women and is not a sexually transmitted disease. Testing for Group B Strep is done in each pregnancy, usually around 35-37 weeks. If a woman tests positive, antibiotics are administered during labor to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice A is the correct answer as Group B Strep cannot be prevented but only treated. Choice B is incorrect; condom use does not prevent Group B Strep. Choice C is not the best response as hand-washing is important for general hygiene but does not specifically prevent Group B Strep. Choice D is incorrect as there is no vaccine available to prevent Group B Strep.
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When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
- B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
- C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
- D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.
Around what age do children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety'?
- A. 9 months
- B. 6 months
- C. 3 months
- D. 12 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is '6 months.' At around this age, children typically start to develop 'stranger anxiety' as they become more aware of unfamiliar faces and may start showing signs of distress or anxiety around strangers. At 3 months, infants are still very young and unlikely to display stranger anxiety. While by 9 or 12 months, children have usually already developed some level of stranger anxiety, it typically starts around 6 months, making it the most appropriate answer in this context.
The LPN is caring for a 9-month-old infant. Which of these behaviors exhibited by the child warrants further investigation?
- A. She prefers crawling over walking and makes no attempt to walk.
- B. She seems distressed by new adults.
- C. She does not respond to her own name.
- D. She only babbles "mama"? and "dada."?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the child does not respond to her own name. By 9 months, children should be babbling simple words, crawling, and responding to their name. Not responding to one's name can be an early indicator of a potential developmental delay, warranting further investigation. Preferring crawling over walking, being distressed by new adults, and babbling 'mama' and 'dada' are typical behaviors for a 9-month-old and do not necessarily require immediate concern.
A Mexican American client with epilepsy is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse understands which primary purpose of including cultural information in the health assessment?
- A. Confirm the medical diagnosis.
- B. Make accurate nursing diagnoses.
- C. Identify any hereditary traits related to the epilepsy.
- D. Determine what the client believes has caused the epilepsy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose for including cultural information in the health assessment is to determine what the client believes has caused the illness. In Mexican American culture, epilepsy is seen as a reflection of physical imbalance. While gathering data on hereditary traits and formulating nursing diagnoses are important, they are not the primary reasons for including cultural information in the health assessment. It is crucial to understand the client's beliefs as they may impact their perceptions of health, treatment adherence, and overall care. It is not the nurse's role to confirm a medical diagnosis, as this is the responsibility of the healthcare provider.
A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?
- A. Venous insufficiency
- B. Intermittent claudication
- C. Sore muscles from overexertion
- D. Muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.