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A pregnant client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse is prescribed anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy. The nurse reviews the client's medical record, expecting to note that which medication therapy is prescribed daily?
- A. Oral warfarin
- B. Intravenous infusion of heparin sodium
- C. Subcutaneous administration of terbutaline
- D. Subcutaneous administration of heparin sodium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pregnant women with mitral valve prolapse are frequently given anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy because they are at greater risk for thromboembolic disease during the antenatal, intrapartal, and postpartum periods. Heparin, which does not pass the placental barrier, is a safe anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy, and it would be administered by the subcutaneous route. Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy because it passes the placental barrier and causes potential fetal malformations and hemorrhagic disorders. Terbutaline is a medication that is indicated for preterm labor management.
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The nurse is reviewing the laboratory analysis of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obtained during a lumbar puncture from a child who is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which result would most likely confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Clear CSF with low protein and low glucose
- B. Cloudy CSF with low protein and low glucose
- C. Cloudy CSF with high protein and low glucose
- D. Decreased pressure and cloudy CSF with high protein
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A diagnosis of meningitis is made by testing CSF obtained by lumbar puncture. In the case of bacterial meningitis, findings usually include increased pressure and cloudy CSF with high protein and low glucose. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.
At the last vaginal exam, the client who is in the late first stage of labor was fully effaced, 8 cm dilated, vertex presentation, and station -1. Which observation would indicate that the fetus was in fetal distress?
- A. The fetal heart rate slowly drops to 110 beats/min during strong contractions, recovering to 138 beats/min immediately afterward.
- B. Fresh meconium is found on the examiner's gloved fingers after a vaginal exam, and the fetal monitor pattern remains essentially unchanged.
- C. Fresh, thick meconium is passed with a small gush of liquid, and the fetal monitor shows late decelerations with a variable descending baseline.
- D. The vaginal exam continues to reveal some old meconium staining, and the fetal monitor demonstrates a U-shaped pattern of deceleration during contractions, recovering to a baseline of 140 beats/min.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Meconium staining alone is not a sign of fetal distress. Meconium passage is a normal physiological function that is frequently noted with a fetus of more than 38 weeks' gestation. Fresh meconium, in combination with late decelerations and a variable descending baseline, is an ominous signal of fetal distress caused by fetal hypoxia. It is not unusual for the fetal heart rate to drop to less than the 140 to 160 beats/min range in late labor during contractions, and, in a healthy fetus, the fetal heart rate will recover between contractions. Old meconium staining may be the result of a prenatal trauma that is resolved.
The home care nurse is preparing to visit a client diagnosed with Ménière's disease. The nurse reviews the primary health care provider prescriptions and expects to educate the client on which dietary measure?
- A. A low-fiber diet with decreased fluids
- B. A low-sodium diet and fluid restriction
- C. A low-fat diet with a restriction of citrus fruits
- D. A low-carbohydrate diet and the elimination of red meats
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dietary changes such as salt and fluid restrictions that reduce the amount of endolymphatic fluid are sometimes prescribed for clients with Ménière's disease. None of the remaining options are prescribed for this disorder.
The nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with tuberculosis. The client is receiving 600 mg of oral rifampin daily. Which laboratory finding would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect?
- A. A sedimentation rate of 15 mm/hour
- B. A white blood cell count of 6000 mm^3 (6 × 10^9/L)
- C. A total bilirubin level of 0.3 mg/dL (5.1 mcmol/L)
- D. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 80 U/L (80 U/L)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Adverse or toxic effects of rifampin include hepatotoxicity, hepatitis, jaundice, blood dyscrasias, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and antibiotic-related colitis. The nurse monitors for increased liver function, bilirubin, blood urea nitrogen, and uric acid levels because elevations indicate an adverse effect. The normal ALT level is 4 to 36 U/L (4 to 36 U/L). The normal total bilirubin level is 0.3 to 1.0 mg/dL (5.1 to 17 mcmol/L). The normal sedimentation rate is 0 to 30 mm/hour. A normal white blood cell count is 5000 to 10,000 mm^3 (5 to 10 × 10^9/L).
A client had arterial blood gases drawn. The results are a pH of 7.34, a partial pressure of carbon dioxide of 37 mm Hg (37 mm Hg), a partial pressure of oxygen of 79 mm Hg (79 mm Hg), and a bicarbonate level of 19 mEq/L (19 mmol/L). Which disorder should the nurse interpret that the client is experiencing?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metabolic acidosis occurs when the pH falls to less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level falls to less than 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). With metabolic alkalosis, the pH rises to more than 7.45 and the bicarbonate level rises to more than 27 mEq/L (27 mmol/L). With respiratory acidosis, the pH drops to less than 7.35 and the carbon dioxide level rises to more than 45 mm Hg. With respiratory alkalosis, the pH rises to more than 7.45 and the carbon dioxide level falls to less than 35 mm Hg.