A pregnant client tells the nurse that she felt wetness on her peripad and found some clear fluid. The nurse inspects the perineum and notes the presence of the umbilical cord. What is the immediate nursing action?
- A. Monitor the fetal heart rate.
- B. Notify the primary health care provider.
- C. Transfer the client to the delivery room.
- D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: On inspection of the perineum, if the umbilical cord is noted, the nurse immediately places the client in the Trendelenburg position while gently holding the presenting part upward to relieve the cord compression. This position is maintained and the primary health care provider is notified. The fetal heart rate also needs to be monitored to assess for fetal distress. The client is transferred to the delivery room when prescribed by the primary health care provider.
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The nurse is caring for a client receiving bolus feedings via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The nurse should place the client in which position to administer the feeding?
- A. Supine
- B. Semi-Fowler's
- C. Trendelenburg's
- D. Lateral recumbent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients are at high risk for aspiration during an NG tube feeding because the tube bypasses a protective mechanism, the gag reflex. The head of the bed is elevated 35 to 40 degrees (Semi-Fowler's) to prevent this complication by facilitating gastric emptying. The remaining options increase the risk of aspiration by blunting the effect of gravity on gastric emptying.
A pregnant client reports that her last menstrual period was February 9, 2018. Using Nägele's rule, what will the nurse determine as the estimated date of birth?
- A. 7-Oct-18
- B. 16-Oct-18
- C. 7-Nov-18
- D. 16-Nov-18
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Accurate use of Nägele's rule requires that the woman has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle. To calculate the estimated date of birth, the nurse would subtract 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period, add 7 days, and then adjust the year as appropriate. First day of last menstrual period: February 9, 2018; subtract 3 months: November 9, 2017; add 7 days: November 16, 2017; and add 1 year, November 16, 2018.
A prenatal client has a suspected diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia. On assessment, which finding should the nurse expect to note as a result of this condition?
- A. Dehydration
- B. Overhydration
- C. A high hematocrit level
- D. A low hemoglobin level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pathological anemia of pregnancy is primarily caused by iron deficiency. When the hemoglobin level is below 11 mg/dL (110 mmol/L), iron deficiency is suspected. An indirect index of the oxygen-carrying capacity is determined via a packed red blood cell volume or hematocrit level. Dehydration and overhydration are not specifically associated with iron deficiency anemia.
A visiting home care nurse finds a client unconscious in the bedroom. The client has a history of abusing the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, sertraline. The nurse should immediately conduct which assessment?
- A. Pulse
- B. Respirations
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Urinary output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In an emergency situation, the nurse should determine breathlessness first and then assess for a pulse. Blood pressure would be assessed after these assessments are performed. Urinary output is also important but is not the priority at this time.
A client who has been diagnosed with carbon monoxide poisoning is asking that the oxygen mask be removed. The nurse shares with the client that the oxygen may be safely removed once the carboxyhemoglobin level decreases to less than which level?
- A. 5%
- B. 10%
- C. 15%
- D. 25%
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oxygen may be removed safely from the client with carbon monoxide poisoning once carboxyhemoglobin levels are less than 5%. Normal carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO) levels are 0% to 3% for nonsmokers and 3% to 8% for smokers. Levels of 10% to 20% cause headaches, nausea, vomiting, and dyspnea. Levels of 30% to 40% cause severe headaches, syncope, and tachydysrhythmias. Levels greater than 40% cause Cheyne-Stokes respiration or respiratory failure, seizures, unconsciousness, permanent brain damage, cardiac arrest, and even death. Options 2, 3, and 4 are elevated levels.