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A prenatal client has a suspected diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia. On assessment, which finding should the nurse expect to note as a result of this condition?
- A. Dehydration
- B. Overhydration
- C. A high hematocrit level
- D. A low hemoglobin level
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pathological anemia of pregnancy is primarily caused by iron deficiency. When the hemoglobin level is below 11 mg/dL (110 mmol/L), iron deficiency is suspected. An indirect index of the oxygen-carrying capacity is determined via a packed red blood cell volume or hematocrit level. Dehydration and overhydration are not specifically associated with iron deficiency anemia.
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A coronary care unit (CCU) nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should monitor the client for which most common complication of MI?
- A. Heart failure
- B. Cardiogenic shock
- C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. Recurrent myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dysrhythmias are the most common complication and cause of death after an MI. Heart failure, cardiogenic shock, and recurrent MI are also complications but occur less frequently.
A client hospitalized with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis is being treated with heparin infusion therapy. About 24 hours after the infusion has begun, the nurse notes that the client's partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 65 seconds with a control of 30 seconds. What nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
- B. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
- C. Notify the primary health care provider of the laboratory results.
- D. Include in report that the client is adequately anticoagulated.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The effectiveness of heparin therapy is monitored by the results of the PTT. Desired range for therapeutic anticoagulation is 1.5 to 2.5 times the control. A PTT of 65 seconds is within the therapeutic range. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect actions.
The nurse reviews the client's vital signs in the client's chart. Based on these data findings, what is the client's pulse pressure? Fill in the blank.
Correct Answer: 74 mm Hg
Rationale: The difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure is the pulse pressure. Therefore, if the client has a blood pressure of 146/72 mm Hg, then the pulse pressure is 74.
A client is receiving cisplatin. On assessment of the client, which findings indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Excessive urination
- D. Yellow halos in front of the eyes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cisplatin is an antineoplastic medication. An adverse effect related to the administration of cisplatin is ototoxicity with hearing loss. The nurse should assess for this adverse reaction when administering this medication. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not adverse effects of this medication.
The nurse monitoring a postoperative client should recognize which behaviors as indicators that the client is in pain? Select all that apply.
- A. Gasping
- B. Lip biting
- C. Muscle tension
- D. Pacing activities
- E. Staring out the window
- F. Asking for the television to be turned off
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: The nurse should assess verbalization, vocal response, facial and body movements, and social interaction as indicators of pain. Behavioral indicators of pain include gasping, lip biting (facial expressions), muscle tension, pacing activities, moaning, crying, grunting (vocalizations), grimacing, clenching teeth, wrinkling the forehead, tightly closing or widely opening the eyes or mouth, restlessness, immobilization, increased hand and finger movements, rhythmic or rubbing motions, protective movements of body parts (body movement), avoidance of conversation, focusing only on activities for pain relief, avoiding social contacts and interactions, and reduced attention span. Options 5 and 6 are not to be assumed as pain-related behaviors because there can be a variety of reasons for such actions.