A primary health care provider prescribes phenytoin to be administered parenterally to a client with a seizure disorder. The nurse prepares the drug to be given by which method?
- A. Intradermally
- B. Subcutaneously
- C. Intramuscularly
- D. Intravenously
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin can be administered orally and parenterally. If the drug is administered parenterally, the intravenous (IV) route is preferred over the intramuscular (IM) route, because with the IM route erratic absorption of phenytoin causes pain and muscle damage at the injection site. The drug is not administered intradermally or subcutaneously.
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The nurse would closely monitor a client taking which of the following anticonvulsants for pancytopenia? Select all that apply.
- A. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
- B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Valproic acid (Depakote)
- D. Felbamate (Felbatol)
- E. Zonisamide (Zonegran)
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: A client taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) or felbamate (Felbatol) should be monitored closely for pancytopenia.
A client with partial seizures has been prescribed a succinimide anticonvulsant. The client complains of GI upset after taking the drug. The nurse would suggest taking the drug in which manner?
- A. Daily at bedtime
- B. Immediately before eating a meal
- C. With some food or milk
- D. First thing in the morning on arising
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If the client experiences GI upset after succinimide administration, the nurse should instruct the client to take the drug with food or milk. The nurse need not instruct the client to take the drug once only at bedtime, before meals, or immediately on arising in the morning.
A nurse understands that lorazepam (Ativan) is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus but that its effects last for less than 1 hour. The nurse would expect which of the following to be prescribed along with lorazepam (Ativan) during status epilepticus? Select all that apply.
- A. Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
- B. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Ethotoin (Peganone)
- D. Zonisamide (Zonegran)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Due to the short effects of lorazepam (Ativan), a longer-acting anticonvulsant, such as phenytoin (Dilantin), is given to continue control of seizure activity.
An older adult client is prescribed diazepam for seizure control. Which of the following would be most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Respiratory rate and depth
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Swallowing ability
- D. Speech quality
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Apnea and cardiac arrest can occur when diazepam is administered to older adults, very ill patients, and individuals with limited pulmonary reserve. Therefore, monitoring the client's respiratory rate and depth would be most important. There is no need to monitor the client's blood glucose levels, swallowing ability, or speech quality unless these were issues before this drug therapy was initiated.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client receiving anticonvulsant therapy and identifies a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Injury. Which assessment findings would support this nursing diagnosis? Select all that apply.
- A. Epistaxis
- B. Reports of blurred vision
- C. Complaints of dizziness
- D. Photosensitivity
- E. Scaling red rash
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Rationale: A client would be at risk for injury if the client was experiencing blurred vision, dizziness, and photosensitivity. Epistaxis would support a nursing diagnosis of a possible Risk for Injury related to a reduction in platelets from hematologic adverse reactions. A scaling red rash would support a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity.
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