A primigravida with(choices truncated due to document error; assuming standard options for context) diabetes is admitted to the labor and delivery unit at 34 weeks gestation. Which doctor's order should the nurse question?
- A. Magnesium sulfate 4 gm (25%) IV
- B. Brethine 10 mcg IV
- C. Stadol 1 mg IV push every 4 hours as needed prn for pain
- D. Ancef 2 gm IVPB every 6 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Brethine (terbutaline) is a tocolytic that can exacerbate maternal diabetes by causing hyperglycemia, so this order should be questioned in a diabetic primigravida.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 17-year-old adolescent, diagnosed with schizophrenia, is admitted by the nurse to a psychiatric facility. Which behaviors would characterize this diagnosis? Select all that apply.
- A. flat affect
- B. fast speech pattern
- C. hallucinations
- D. feeling energized
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: Flat affect and hallucinations are hallmark symptoms of schizophrenia. Fast speech or feeling energized may occur but are not specific to this diagnosis.
The nurse is evaluating cerebral perfusion outcomes for a client with a subdural hematoma. The nurse evaluates which of the following as a favorable outcome for this client?
- A. Arterial blood gas POâ‚‚ of 98
- B. Increase in lethargy
- C. Pupils slow to react to light
- D. Temperature of 101°F
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An arterial blood gas POâ‚‚ of 98 indicates adequate oxygenation, supporting cerebral perfusion, which is a favorable outcome for a subdural hematoma.
A 78-year-old client with a history of diabetes mellitus type 2, GERD, and hypertension is hospitalized with pneumonia and rings the call bell at 11 PM, complaining of being unable to sleep and having 'indigestion' and 'heartburn.' Which of the following initial interventions is most indicated?
- A. Administer antacid per prn order.
- B. Administer acetaminophen per prn order.
- C. Administer hypnotic per prn order.
- D. Assess cardiac and respiratory status.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In an elderly client with comorbidities, indigestion and heartburn may indicate a cardiac event, so assessing cardiac and respiratory status (D) is the priority. Administering medications (A, B, C) is secondary.
Following femoral catheterization for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), the client has increasing pain in the catheterization site, and the nurse notes visible edema and induration surrounding the site. The nurse suspects a hematoma and notifies the physician. Which of the following interventions does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
- A. Apply pressure to the site.
- B. Mark margins of edematous, indurated area.
- C. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- D. Maintain bedrest.
- E. Administration of clotting factors.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: Hematoma management includes applying pressure (A), marking edema (B), monitoring hemoglobin/hematocrit (C), and maintaining bedrest (D). Clotting factors (E) are not typically needed.
The nurse has documented a treatment on the wrong client's record. Which of the following methods of indicating the error is correct?
- A. The nurse draws a straight line through the incorrect entry and writes 'error' above it and initials the correction.
- B. The nurse uses correction fluid to cover the incorrect entry.
- C. The nurse draws multiple lines through the incorrect entry so it is unreadable, writes 'error' above it, and initials the correction.
- D. The nurse leaves the incorrect entry in place, writes 'error' in the margin, and initials and dates the notation.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A single line through the error with 'error' written above and initialed (A) maintains transparency while correcting the record. Correction fluid (B) is unacceptable, multiple lines (C) obscure the record, and margin notes (D) are insufficient.
Nokea