Nokea
A primiparous client with a neonate who is 36 hours old asks the nurse, "Why does my baby spit up a small amount of formula after feeding?" The nurse explains that the regurgitation is thought to result from which of the following?
- A. An immature cardiac sphincter.
- B. A defect in the gastrointestinal system.
- C. Burping the infant too frequently.
- D. Moving the infant during the feeding.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An immature cardiac sphincter in newborns can cause regurgitation of formula.
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Two hours after vaginally delivering a viable male neonate under epidural anesthesia, the client with a midline episiotomy ambulates to the bathroom to void. After voiding, the nurse assesses the client's bladder, finding it distended. The nurse interprets this finding based on the understanding that the client's bladder distention is most likely caused by which of the following?
- A. Prolonged first stage of labor.
- B. Urinary tract infection.
- C. Pressure of the uterus on the bladder.
- D. Edema in the lower urinary tract area.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Edema in the lower urinary tract, often from delivery trauma or epidural anesthesia, can cause urinary retention and bladder distention.
A nurse is counseling a client about the use of a diaphragm. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Insert the diaphragm up to 12 hours before intercourse.
- B. Use spermicide with the diaphragm for each act of intercourse.
- C. Remove the diaphragm immediately after intercourse.
- D. Store the diaphragm in a hot, humid environment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using spermicide with the diaphragm for each act of intercourse is essential for effectiveness. It can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse, should be left in place for at least 6 hours after, and stored in a cool, dry place.
A 21-year-old primigravid client at 40 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. The client's cervix is 8 cm and completely effaced at 0 station. During the transition phase of labor, which of the following is a priority nursing diagnosis?
- A. Impaired urinary elimination related to nothing-by-mouth status.
- B. Risk for injury related to hyperventilation and dizziness.
- C. Ineffective coping related to lack of confidence.
- D. Pain related to increasing frequency and intensity of uterine contractions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the transition phase (8–10 cm), intense and frequent contractions cause significant pain, making pain management the priority nursing diagnosis. Urinary elimination issues are less urgent, hyperventilation is a secondary concern, and coping issues are not as immediate as pain.
Assessment of a primigravid client reveals cervical dilation at 8 cm and complete effacement. The client complains of severe back pain during this phase of labor. The nurse explains that the client's severe back pain is most likely caused by the fetal occiput being in a position that is identified as which of the following?
- A. Breech.
- B. Transverse.
- C. Posterior.
- D. Anterior.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe back pain in labor is commonly associated with a posterior occiput position (e.g., occipitoposterior), where the fetal head presses against the maternal sacrum. Breech, transverse, or anterior positions are less likely to cause intense back pain.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take when performing external cardiac massage on a neonate born at 28 weeks' gestation?
- A. Alternate cardiac massage with ventilation.
- B. Compress the sternum with the palm of the hand.
- C. Compress the chest 70 to 80 times per minute.
- D. Displace the chest 70 to 80 times per minute.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alternating cardiac massage with ventilation follows neonatal resuscitation guidelines to restore circulation and oxygenation.