Nokea
A quality control nurse is reviewing medication prescriptions for a group of clients. Which of the following medication prescriptions should the nurse identify as being complete?
- A. Tetracycline 200 mg PO
- B. Epoetin alfa 150 units/kg three times weekly
- C. Digoxin 0.25 mg PD dally
- D. Cimetidine PO twice daily
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The rationale for this choice being complete is that it includes the medication name (Digoxin), dose (0.25 mg), route of administration (PO - by mouth), and frequency (daily). This prescription is clear and specific, providing all necessary information for the nurse to accurately administer the medication.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Missing frequency information.
B: Missing route of administration and frequency.
D: Missing dose and frequency.
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The nurse should notify the provider for which of the following findings?
- A. Report of discomfort at the insertion site
- B. Heart rate 90/min
- C. Bounding pulses in the affected extremity
- D. Hematoma over the insertion site
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hematoma over the insertion site. This finding indicates potential internal bleeding, which can lead to complications. Notify the provider to assess and manage promptly. A: Discomfort at insertion site is common post-procedure and can be managed with appropriate interventions. B: Heart rate of 90/min is within normal range and does not require immediate provider notification. C: Bounding pulses in the affected extremity may indicate adequate perfusion and is not a concerning finding.
A nurse is conducting health promotion education regarding contraindications to combination oral contraceptive use to a group of women. Which of the following conditions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Fibromyalga
- C. Renal calculi
- D. Fibrocystic breast disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Hypertension is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptive use due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events. Hypertension can be exacerbated by hormonal contraceptives, leading to serious complications like stroke or heart attack. It is crucial for women with hypertension to avoid estrogen-containing contraceptives.
B: Fibromyalgia, C: Renal calculi, D: Fibrocystic breast disease are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptive use. Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder, renal calculi are kidney stones, and fibrocystic breast disease is a benign breast condition. These conditions do not impact the safety or efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.
A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr
- B. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain
- C. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice far a low blood glucose level
- D. A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should assess the client who just drank orange juice for a low blood glucose level first because hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications like seizures or loss of consciousness. Assessing and addressing the client's blood glucose level promptly is crucial to prevent harm.
Choice A is not the priority as the client scheduled for a procedure in 1 hour can wait for assessment until after the client with low blood glucose is evaluated.
Choice B, the client who received pain medication 30 minutes ago, can be assessed after the client with low blood glucose since the medication's effects have likely already taken place.
Choice D, the client with 100 mL of fluid remaining in the IV bag, can also wait for assessment as it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health compared to low blood glucose.
Therefore, prioritizing the assessment of the client with low blood glucose is crucial to ensure their safety and well-being.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery and has an indwelling urinary catheter that is draining dark yellow urine at 25 mL/hr. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Initiate continuous bladder irrigation.
- B. Administer a fluid bolus
- C. Clamp the catheter tubing for 30 min.
- D. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitive
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a fluid bolus. The dark yellow urine output at 25 mL/hr indicates concentrated urine and potential dehydration. Administering a fluid bolus would help improve hydration status and increase urine output. Continuous bladder irrigation (A) is not indicated as there is no indication of bladder obstruction. Clamping the catheter tubing (C) can lead to urinary retention and should not be done without a specific reason. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture (D) is important, but addressing the dehydration issue takes priority.
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. The nurse should use a filter needle to withdraw the medication.
- B. The nurse should break the neck of the ampule toward their body
- C. The nurse should use the same needle to draw up and inject the client
- D. The nurse should dispose of the ampule in the trash can.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The nurse should use a filter needle to withdraw the medication. This is the correct action as filter needles help prevent the introduction of particulate matter or impurities into the medication, ensuring patient safety. Using a filter needle also reduces the risk of needlestick injuries and contamination.
Choice B is incorrect as breaking the neck of the ampule towards the body increases the risk of injury due to glass shards flying towards the nurse. Choice C is incorrect as it violates safe medication administration practices by risking contamination. Choice D is incorrect as ampules should be disposed of in a sharps container, not the trash can.