Nokea
A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:
- A. identifying risks.
- B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
- C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
- D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.
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What is the appropriate intervention for a client who is restrained?
- A. Remove the restraints and provide skin care every hour.
- B. Document the condition of the client's skin every 3 hours.
- C. Assess the restraint every 30 minutes
- D. Tie the restraint to the side rails.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention when a client is restrained is to assess the restraint every 30 minutes. This ensures the safety and well-being of the client by checking for proper fit, circulation, and signs of distress. Removing restraints and providing skin care every hour may not be necessary and could increase the risk of skin breakdown. Documenting the skin condition every 3 hours is important but not the immediate intervention needed when a client is restrained. Tying the restraint to the side rails is unsafe and can cause harm to the client, as restraints should be secured to the bed frame or an immovable part of the bed.
When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, which of the following factors is least relevant?
- A. current medications
- B. ambulation abilities
- C. family history
- D. hydration status
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.
What is a predisposing factor for cancer of the tongue?
- A. tobacco use
- B. obesity
- C. sun exposure
- D. eating sweets
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tobacco use is a well-established predisposing factor for cancer of the tongue. Smoking or chewing tobacco can lead to the development of oral cancers, including those affecting the tongue. Obesity, sun exposure, and eating sweets are not directly linked to an increased risk of tongue cancer. Obesity may be associated with other types of cancer, sun exposure can lead to skin cancer, and eating sweets is not a known risk factor for tongue cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is tobacco use, as it has a strong association with the development of tongue cancer, making it a significant predisposing factor.
A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client's record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation?
- A. The client's wound is healing well.
- B. The client seems anxious.
- C. The client's intake was 360 mL
- D. The client is voiding large amounts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Quality documentation and reporting require information to be factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Choice C, 'The client's intake was 360 mL,' reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation as it provides a specific and measurable observation. This note meets the criteria for quality documentation by being specific and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D lack specificity and quantifiability. Choice A includes a subjective term 'well,' choice B uses 'seems' indicating uncertainty, and choice D uses a vague term 'large' without quantifying the amount.
What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m.?
- A. delta sleep
- B. slow brain waves
- C. pneumonia
- D. circadian rhythm
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1°F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.