Nokea
A senior high school student, whose immunization status is current, asks the school nurse which immunizations will be included in the precollege physical. Which vaccine should the nurse tell the student to expect to receive?
- A. Hepatitis C (HepC)
- B. Influenza type B (HIB)
- C. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
- D. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR). MMR vaccine is commonly included in precollege physicals to ensure students are protected against these diseases. Choice A, Hepatitis C (HepC), is incorrect as the standard vaccine for hepatitis given in childhood is Hepatitis B. Choice B, Influenza type B (HIB), is not typically administered during precollege physicals but is recommended for younger children. Choice D, Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP), is usually given in early childhood and not typically repeated during precollege physicals.
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On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse's initial response should be to
- A. Give the client orientation materials and review the unit rules and regulations
- B. Introduce oneself and accompany the client to their room
- C. Take the client to the day room and introduce them to the other clients
- D. Ask the nursing assistant to get the client's vital signs and complete the admission search
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In situations where a client is trembling and fearful upon admission to a psychiatric unit, it is essential to prioritize building trust and reducing anxiety. By introducing oneself and accompanying the client to their room, the nurse can establish a therapeutic relationship, provide a sense of security, and address the client's immediate emotional needs. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate initial responses as they do not directly address the client's emotional state or focus on establishing a supportive relationship.
The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is
- A. Trendelenburg
- B. Prone
- C. Semi-Fowler's
- D. Side-lying with head flat
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.
The nurse is discussing dietary intake with an adolescent who has acne. The most appropriate statement for the nurse is:
- A. Eat a balanced diet for your age.
- B. Increase your intake of protein and Vitamin A.
- C. Decrease fatty foods from your diet.
- D. Do not use caffeine in any form, including chocolate.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate advice for an adolescent with acne is to eat a balanced diet for their age. A balanced diet that includes a variety of nutrients is essential for overall health, including skin health. While protein and Vitamin A are important for skin health, focusing solely on increasing these nutrients may not address the overall dietary needs. Similarly, solely decreasing fatty foods or avoiding caffeine may not be the most effective advice for managing acne. Therefore, the best advice is to promote a balanced diet tailored to the adolescent's age.
A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
- B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
- C. A significant decrease in appetite
- D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.
A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Blood culture
- C. Sputum culture
- D. PPD intradermal test
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.