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A supervisor is restricting the flow of communication between staff. This has resulted in the staff having two very opposite directions. The supervisor's actions are known as which type of force?
- A. Opposing force
- B. Driving force
- C. Restraining force
- D. Restrictive force
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restraining force. In this scenario, the supervisor's actions of restricting communication act as a restraining force, hindering the flow of information and causing conflicting directions among the staff. A restraining force limits the ability of individuals or groups to achieve their goals by imposing obstacles or constraints. Opposing force (A) implies a force in direct opposition, which is not the case here. Driving force (B) typically motivates action rather than restricts it. Restrictive force (D) is similar to restraining force but lacks the specific connotation of limiting communication in this context.
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Which of the following is one of the sources used to determine the reason for voluntary turnover?
- A. Following-up phone calls
- B. Employee questioning
- C. Benchmarking
- D. Exit interviewing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exit interviewing. Exit interviews involve conducting structured interviews with employees who are leaving an organization voluntarily to understand their reasons for leaving. This method provides valuable insights into the factors contributing to turnover. Exit interviews are a direct way to gather feedback and identify patterns or issues that may be leading to voluntary turnover.
A: Following-up phone calls may not provide in-depth information or allow for a structured approach to understanding the reasons for turnover.
B: Employee questioning is vague and does not specify a method for gathering feedback, unlike the structured approach of exit interviews.
C: Benchmarking involves comparing data with industry standards and may not provide specific insights into individual reasons for voluntary turnover within an organization.
In summary, exit interviewing is the most effective source for determining the reasons for voluntary turnover as it offers a structured and direct approach to gathering valuable feedback from departing employees.
What is the primary goal of a clinical nurse leader (CNL)?
- A. To manage the nursing staff
- B. To coordinate patient care
- C. To improve patient outcomes
- D. To implement evidence-based practices
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of a clinical nurse leader (CNL) is to improve patient outcomes. CNLs focus on enhancing the quality of care provided to patients by coordinating and overseeing healthcare processes. They work to ensure that patients receive the best possible care and achieve positive health outcomes. Managing nursing staff (A) is not the primary goal of a CNL, as their role is more patient-centered. While coordinating patient care (B) is an important aspect of a CNL's responsibilities, the ultimate goal is to improve patient outcomes. Implementing evidence-based practices (D) is essential for achieving better patient outcomes, but it is not the primary goal of a CNL, as their main focus is on the overall improvement of patient health and well-being.
Constant reports of inadequate pain control in clients indicate which of the following?
- A. Improper administration of medications
- B. Potential substance abuse by the healthcare provider
- C. Poorly written prescriptions
- D. Inadequate scheduling by healthcare providers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential substance abuse by the healthcare provider. Constant reports of inadequate pain control could indicate potential substance abuse by the healthcare provider. This is because substance abuse can impair judgment and lead to inappropriate prescribing practices, resulting in inadequate pain management for clients. The other choices are incorrect because improper administration of medications (A), poorly written prescriptions (C), and inadequate scheduling by healthcare providers (D) are more likely to be isolated incidents rather than consistent patterns of inadequate pain control.
What is the main focus of a risk management program in healthcare?
- A. To reduce hospital readmissions
- B. To manage financial resources
- C. To ensure compliance with healthcare regulations
- D. To improve clinical outcomes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The main focus of a risk management program in healthcare is to improve clinical outcomes. This involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks that may impact patient safety and care quality. By focusing on clinical outcomes, healthcare organizations can enhance patient satisfaction, reduce medical errors, and optimize treatment effectiveness. Hospital readmissions, financial management, and regulatory compliance are important aspects of healthcare management but are not the primary focus of a risk management program, which is centered on patient care and safety.
From a unit perspective, disruptive and violent patient behavior may be distracting to patients and staff. As the nurse manager, you are concerned about: (EXCEPT)
- A. Patient and staff safety.
- B. Team tension.
- C. Fear of disappointment.
- D. Stress levels.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fear of disappointment. As a nurse manager, concerns should be focused on patient and staff safety (A), team tension (B), and stress levels (D) due to disruptive and violent patient behavior. Fear of disappointment is not directly related to the immediate impact on safety, team dynamics, or stress levels in this scenario. It is important to prioritize addressing safety risks, maintaining team cohesion, and managing stress levels to ensure a safe and effective healthcare environment.