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A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
- A. Esophagostomy
- B. Thymectomy
- C. Myomectomy
- D. Spleenectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. The thymus gland is often found to be abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis, and removing it through thymectomy can lead to substantial remission of symptoms. This is because the thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and may be producing antibodies that attack neuromuscular junctions in myasthenia gravis.
Choice A, esophagostomy, is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the esophagus for feeding and has no direct impact on myasthenia gravis. Choice C, myomectomy, is the removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis as the spleen is not implicated in the disease process.
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Which of the following assessment findings would suggest to the home health nurse that the patient is developing congestive heart failure?
- A. orthopnea
- B. fever
- C. weight loss
- D. calf pain A1 PASSERS TRAINING, RESEARCH, REVIEW & DEVELOPMENT COMPANY MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING SET O
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Orthopnea is a classic symptom of congestive heart failure (CHF) due to fluid accumulation in the lungs when lying flat.
Step 2: This symptom occurs because when lying down, the fluid redistributes, making it harder to breathe.
Step 3: Fever (choice B) is not typically associated with CHF unless there is an underlying infection.
Step 4: Weight loss (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like cancer or malnutrition, not CHF.
Step 5: Calf pain (choice D) is more commonly associated with deep vein thrombosis, not CHF.
Summary: Orthopnea is the best assessment finding indicating CHF, while the other choices are more likely related to different health conditions.
A client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
- A. It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication only.
- B. It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription only.
- C. It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription.
- D. It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because thiotepa is a cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent that interferes with both DNA replication and RNA transcription. Thiotepa works by cross-linking DNA strands, leading to inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against actively dividing cells, such as cancer cells.
Choice A is incorrect because thiotepa does not interfere with DNA replication alone. Choice B is incorrect because thiotepa affects both DNA replication and RNA transcription, not just RNA transcription. Choice D is incorrect because thiotepa does not destroy the cell membrane; instead, it acts on the genetic material within the cell.
A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;
- A. 13 gtt/min
- B. 29 gtt/min
- C. 16 gtt/min
- D. 32 gtt/min Situation 5: Protection of self and patient can be done by supporting the body's immunity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we first need to find the total volume of IV fluid to be administered, which is 1500 ml + 1250 ml = 2750 ml. Then, we multiply the total volume by the drop factor (2750 ml * 15 gtt/ml = 41250 gtt). Finally, we divide the total number of drops by the time in minutes (24 hours * 60 min = 1440 min) to get the drip rate: 41250 gtt / 1440 min = 28.47 gtt/min, which rounds up to 29 gtt/min. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the given parameters.
The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HSV). The discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual;
- A. Has intercourse with just the spouse
- B. Makes a donation of a pint of whole blood
- C. Limits sexual contact to those without HIV antibodies
- D. Uses a'condom each time there is a sexual intercourse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct:
1. Having intercourse with just the spouse means a monogamous relationship with a trusted partner, minimizing risk of exposure to HIV.
2. It eliminates the risk of contracting HIV from multiple sexual partners.
3. This choice adheres to safer sex practices by reducing the chances of exposure to HIV.
4. This choice also promotes trust and communication within the relationship, further reducing the risk of HIV transmission.
Summary:
- Choice A is correct as it promotes monogamy and reduces the risk of exposure to HIV.
- Choices B, C, and D do not guarantee zero risk of HIV transmission as blood donations, HIV antibodies, and condom use can still pose risks if not used or implemented correctly.
A complete blood count is commonly performed before a client goes into surgery. What does this test seek to identify?
- A. Potential hepatic dysfunction indicated by decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
- B. Low levels of urine constituents normally excreted in the urine
- C. Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels
- D. Electrolyte imbalance that could affect the blood’s ability to coagulate properly
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): A complete blood count (CBC) is used to identify abnormalities in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hb) levels are part of a CBC and indicate the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Abnormally low HCT and Hb levels can signify conditions like anemia, which can impact a client's ability to undergo surgery due to potential complications related to oxygen delivery.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Potential hepatic dysfunction is not directly related to a CBC, and BUN/creatinine levels are markers for kidney function, not liver function.
B: Low levels of urine constituents are not assessed in a CBC, which focuses on blood components.
D: Electrolyte imbalance is not specifically tested in a CBC; it is usually evaluated through separate blood tests. Coagulation factors are not directly measured in a CBC.