Nokea
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
- A. Esophagostomy
- B. Thymectomy
- C. Myomectomy
- D. Spleenectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms.
Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.
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A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
- A. Related to visual field deficits
- B. Related to impaired balance
- C. Related to difficulty swallowing
- D. Related to psychomotor seizures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a cerebellar brain tumor can affect the client's coordination and balance due to its location in the brain responsible for fine motor movements. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and injuries. Visual field deficits (choice A) may contribute to the risk of injury but not as directly as impaired balance. Difficulty swallowing (choice C) and psychomotor seizures (choice D) are not directly related to the client's risk for injury due to a cerebellar brain tumor.
Mrs. Go a 75-year old female suffered a fdall and is diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 interspace, and a second st the C5-C6 interspace.Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to discover during the assessment?
- A. constant, throbbing headaches
- B. clonus in the lower extremities
- C. Numbness of the face
- D. pain in the scapular region
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: pain in the scapular region. This is because a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 and C5-C6 interspaces typically results in pain radiating from the neck to the scapular region due to nerve compression at those levels. The other choices are incorrect as constant, throbbing headaches are not typically associated with this specific diagnosis, clonus in the lower extremities is more indicative of lower spinal cord involvement, and numbness of the face is not a common symptom of herniated discs at these levels.
The staff nurse in a regional hospital is aware that a dose of parenteral ampicillin must be administered within how many hours after it has been mixed?
- A. 1 hour
- B. 4 hours
- C. 2 hours
- D. 8 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (4 hours) because parenteral ampicillin should be administered within 1 hour of mixing. This is crucial to ensure efficacy and prevent bacterial growth in the solution. Choice A (1 hour) is incorrect because it does not allow enough time for administration after mixing. Choice C (2 hours) is also incorrect as it exceeds the recommended time limit. Choice D (8 hours) is incorrect as it exceeds the safe window for administration post-mixing, increasing the risk of bacterial contamination and reduced effectiveness. Thus, the optimal timeframe for administering parenteral ampicillin after mixing is within 4 hours to maintain its therapeutic benefits.
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
- A. The patient can now perform the dressing changes without help.
- B. The patient can begin retaking all of the previous medications.
- C. The patient is apprehensive about discharge.
- D. The patient’s surgery was not successful.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone indicates apprehension about discharge. This inference is based on the patient's subjective feelings and concerns, which are important to address for a safe discharge. Choices A and B are incorrect as they assume the patient's readiness for independent tasks without considering their emotional state. Choice D is incorrect as there is no objective data provided to support the assumption that the surgery was not successful. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge and address the patient's emotional needs before discharge.
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
- A. Etiology
- B. Nursing diagnosis
- C. Collaborative problem
- D. Defining characteristic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise this part of the diagnostic statement because impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems are issues that require both medical and nursing interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses are within the scope of nursing practice. The etiology identifies the cause of the problem (tibial fracture), the nursing diagnosis states the problem (impaired physical mobility), and the defining characteristic is the evidence that supports the diagnosis (inability to ambulate). Therefore, the nurse should revise the part stating collaborative problem as it does not align with the nature of the issue presented in the scenario.