Nokea
A suspected outbreak of anthrax has been transmitted by skin exposure. A client is admitted to the emergency department with lesions on the hands. The physician prescribes antibiotics and sends the client home. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.
- A. Take the prescribed antibiotics for 60 days.
- B. Avoid contact with other members of the family during the treatment period.
- C. Wear a mask for 60 days.
- D. Expect the skin lesions to clear up within 1 to 2 weeks.
- E. Wash hands frequently.
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: Cutaneous anthrax requires antibiotics for 60 days, frequent hand washing to prevent spread, and lesions typically resolve in 1-2 weeks with treatment. Masks and family isolation are unnecessary for cutaneous anthrax.
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A nurse is providing education in a community setting about general measures to avoid excessive sun exposure. Which of the following recommendations is appropriate?
- A. Apply sunscreen only after going into the water.
- B. Avoid peak exposure hours from 9 a.m. to 1 p.m.
- C. Wear loosely woven clothing for added ventilation.
- D. Apply sunscreen with a sun protection factor (SPF) of 15 or more before sun exposure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Applying sunscreen with SPF 15 or higher before sun exposure is a key measure to prevent UV damage. Sunscreen should be applied before water exposure, peak hours are 10 a.m. to 4 p.m., and tightly woven clothing is better for protection.
The nurse notes that the daily white blood cell (WBC) count in a client with aplastic anemia has dropped overnight from 3,900 to 2,900/µL. Which is the appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Continue monitoring the client.
- B. Call the laboratory to verify the report.
- C. Document the finding.
- D. Call the physician and place the client in reverse isolation.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A significant drop in WBC count (3,900 to 2,900/µL) in aplastic anemia indicates worsening neutropenia, increasing infection risk. The nurse should notify the physician and place the client in reverse isolation to protect against infections. Monitoring, verifying, or documenting alone are insufficient given the urgency.
The nurse is caring for a client with angle-closure glaucoma. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate from the primary healthcare provider (PHCP)?
- A. Acetazolamide
- B. Diphenhydramine
- C. Phenylephrine
- D. Nortriptyline
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to reduce intraocular pressure in angle-closure glaucoma by decreasing aqueous humor production. Diphenhydramine, phenylephrine, and nortriptyline are not indicated for this condition.
A client with Addison's disease is admitted to the medical unit. The nurse diagnoses the client with Deficient fluid volume related to inadequate fluid intake and to fluid loss secondary to inadequate adrenal hormone secretion. As the client's oral intake increases, which of the following fluids would be most appropriate?
- A. Milk and diet soda.
- B. Water and eggnog.
- C. Bouillon and juice.
- D. Coffee and milkshakes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bouillon provides sodium, and juice offers hydration and calories, supporting fluid and electrolyte balance in Addison's disease.
A new medication regimen is ordered for a client with Parkinson's disease. At which time should the nurse make certain that the medication is taken?
- A. At bedtime.
- B. All at one time.
- C. Two hours before mealtime.
- D. At the time scheduled.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Adhering to the scheduled times ensures consistent drug levels, critical for managing Parkinson's symptoms. Bedtime, single dosing, or pre-meal timing may disrupt therapeutic efficacy.