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A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
- C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
- D. Generalized edema.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.
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After assessing Mr. B, what is the initial action of the nurse?
- A. Immediately place the client in a negative-pressure room
- B. Set the client up to receive a bronchoscopy
- C. Contact the physician for antifungal medications
- D. Administer oxygen and assist the client to sit in the semi-Fowler's position
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take after assessing Mr. B is to administer oxygen and assist him to sit in the semi-Fowler's position. Administering oxygen helps improve tissue oxygenation, while sitting up in a semi-Fowler's position aids in better breathing and secretion clearance. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room is not the immediate priority unless isolation is needed. Performing a bronchoscopy or contacting the physician for antifungal medications is not the initial step in managing a client with suspected pneumonia.
A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
- A. The tumor is less than 3 cm in size and requires no chemotherapy.
- B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
- C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
- D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed. Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.
A client is brought into the emergency room where the physician suspects that he has cardiac tamponade. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse would expect to see which of the following signs or symptoms in this client?
- A. Fever, fatigue, malaise
- B. Hypotension and distended neck veins
- C. Cough and hemoptysis
- D. Numbness and tingling in the extremities
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac tamponade occurs when fluid or blood accumulates in the pericardium, preventing the heart from contracting properly. This leads to decreased cardiac output and is considered a medical emergency. Classic signs of cardiac tamponade include hypotension (low blood pressure) and distended neck veins due to the increased pressure around the heart. These signs result from the compromised ability of the heart to pump effectively. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with cardiac tamponade. Fever, fatigue, and malaise are non-specific symptoms that can be seen in various conditions. Cough and hemoptysis are more commonly associated with respiratory conditions, while numbness and tingling in the extremities are neurological symptoms not typically seen in cardiac tamponade.
A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
- C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
- D. Generalized edema.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.
A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?
- A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
- B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
- C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
- D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.