A toddler is displaying signs/symptoms of weakness and muscle atrophy. The pediatric neurologist suspects it may be a lower motor neuron disease called spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). The client's family asks how he got this. The nurse will respond:
- A. This could result from playing in soil and then ingesting bacteria that is now attaching his motor neurons.
- B. No one really knows how this disease is formed. We just know that in time, he may grow out of it.
- C. This is a degenerative disorder that tends to be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
- D. This is a segmental demyelination disorder that affects all nerve roots and eventually all muscle groups as well.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is an inherited disorder, often autosomal recessive, that affects lower motor neurons.
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A patient with endometriosis is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). What should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness in treating endometriosis.
A male patient is receiving androgen therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of bone fractures
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- D. Increased risk of prostate cancer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Androgen therapy can increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in older patients.
A postmenopausal woman is administered estradiol (Estraderm). What condition will be prevented in this patient?
- A. Endometriosis
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Uterine cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Conjugated estrogens are used to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
A 50-year-old woman has had a relapse of her multiple sclerosis (MS) after several years of being symptom-free. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to her relapse?
- A. Emotional stress
- B. Dietary indiscretion
- C. Physical overexertion
- D. Adequate rest and relaxation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Physical overexertion can contribute to an MS relapse, triggering symptoms to reappear.
A 45-year-old diabetic male is experiencing erectile dysfunction. If his erectile dysfunction is caused by the nervous system, then the nurse can educate the client that the venous blood supply to the penis is controlled by:
- A. sympathetic nerves.
- B. parasympathetic nerves.
- C. somatic nerves.
- D. spinal reflexes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Erectile function is primarily controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system, which facilitates the dilation of blood vessels in the penis. The parasympathetic nerves are responsible for vasodilation in the penis, allowing blood to enter and creating an erection. Sympathetic nerves, on the other hand, are responsible for ejaculation by causing contraction of the muscles around the vas deferens. Somatic nerves are involved in sensation and movement, not specifically in controlling blood supply to the penis. Spinal reflexes can play a role in the erectile process, but they are not directly responsible for controlling the venous blood supply.