A wet-to-dry dressing is ordered for a client who has a decubitus ulcer. Which technique is appropriate?
- A. Irrigate the wound and then apply a dry dressing and cover with a wet compress.
- B. Apply a wet dressing for two hours followed by a dry dressing for two hours.
- C. Apply a wet dressing, and cover with a dry dressing.
- D. Apply a wet dressing above the wound and a dry dressing below the wound.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings involve a moist gauze applied to the wound, covered with dry gauze, to debride tissue as it dries. Other techniques are incorrect.
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The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV fluids at 125 mL/hour. Which of the following findings would be of GREATest concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg.
- B. Heart rate of 88 bpm.
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min.
- D. Urine output of 100 mL/hour.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min suggests fluid overload, a potential complication of IV fluids, possibly leading to pulmonary edema. Options A, B, and D are normal: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 88 bpm, and urine output 100 mL/hour indicate adequate hydration.
A client with bipolar disorder receives Eskalith (lithium carbonate) bid. Which observation is associated with lithium toxicity?
- A. Hyporeflexia
- B. Akathesia
- C. Ataxia
- D. Petechiae
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia , or impaired coordination, is a sign of lithium toxicity. Hyporeflexia is not typical. Akathesia is restlessness, often linked to antipsychotics. Petechiae indicate bleeding issues, not lithium toxicity.
An elderly client with a fractured hip is placed in Buck's traction. The primary purpose for Buck's traction for this client is:
- A. To decrease muscle spasms
- B. To prevent the need for surgery
- C. To alleviate the pain associated with the fracture
- D. To prevent bleeding associated with hip fractures
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Buck's traction immobilizes the hip to reduce muscle spasms, which can worsen pain and misalignment. It does not prevent surgery or bleeding and is not primarily for pain relief.
An adult is thought to have myasthenia gravis. The nurse knows that which test is most likely to be ordered for the client?
- A. Lumbar puncture
- B. CT scan
- C. Cerebral angiogram
- D. Edrophonium (Tensilon) test
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The edrophonium test, which temporarily improves muscle strength in myasthenia gravis, confirms diagnosis by enhancing neuromuscular transmission, unlike imaging or lumbar puncture.
A 70 year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a wrist fracture of unknown causes. During the process of taking client history, which of these items should the nurse identify as related to the client's greatest risk factors for osteoporosis?
- A. History of menopause at age 50
- B. Taking high doses of steroids for arthritis for many years
- C. Maintaining an inactive lifestyle for the past 10 years
- D. Drinking 2 glasses of red wine each day for the past 30 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Taking high doses of steroids for arthritis for many years. The use of steroids, especially at high doses over time, increases the risk for osteoporosis. The other options also predispose to osteoporosis, as do low bone mass, poor calcium absorption and moderate to high alcohol ingestion. Long-term steroid treatment is the most significant risk factor, however.
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