A woman in active labor is experiencing umbilical cord prolapse. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Elevating the mother's hips to relieve pressure on the cord
- B. Preparing for immediate cesarean section
- C. Administering intravenous fluids rapidly
- D. Applying external fetal monitoring to assess fetal heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the case of umbilical cord prolapse, the priority nursing action is to prepare for an immediate cesarean section. Umbilical cord prolapse is a serious obstetric emergency where the umbilical cord slips through the cervix ahead of the presenting part of the fetus. This can lead to compression of the cord, compromising fetal blood flow and oxygenation. Immediate delivery via cesarean section is necessary in order to prevent fetal hypoxia and avoid potential complications such as brain damage or death. Elevating the mother's hips or administering intravenous fluids rapidly may be interventions done in conjunction with preparing for a cesarean section, but the priority remains expedited delivery of the baby. Applying external fetal monitoring is not the most appropriate action in this emergency situation.
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A patient is prescribed an opioid analgesic for the management of acute pain. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Opioid analgesics are known to suppress the respiratory centers in the brain, leading to respiratory depression as a side effect. This adverse effect is particularly dangerous and potentially life-threatening, especially in patients who are opioid-naive or when high doses are administered. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the patient's respiratory rate, depth, and effort while on opioid analgesic therapy to detect early signs of respiratory depression and intervene promptly to prevent complications. Hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not commonly associated with opioid analgesics.
A 70- year-old has been rushed to the hospital due to bradycardia and palpitation. The physician suggested that a pacemaker be inserted to correct the symptoms. The patient voluntarily decides not to have the pacemaker Inserted. This is respected by the family. This is an example of what ethical principles
- A. Beneficence
- B. Autonomy
- C. Fidelity
- D. Justice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Autonomy is the ethical principle that respects an individual's right to make their own decisions about their medical treatment, even if it goes against medical advice or the preferences of others. In this case, the 70-year-old patient has voluntarily decided not to have the pacemaker inserted despite the physician's recommendation. The fact that the patient's decision is respected by the family reflects the importance of honoring the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare.
A patient presents with unilateral nasal congestion, facial pain, and purulent nasal discharge. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the affected sinus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Allergic rhinitis
- B. Acute sinusitis
- C. Nasal polyps
- D. Deviated nasal septum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of unilateral nasal congestion, facial pain, and purulent nasal discharge with tenderness over the affected sinus are suggestive of acute sinusitis. Acute sinusitis is typically caused by a viral or bacterial infection leading to inflammation and swelling of the sinus mucosa, resulting in the characteristic symptoms described. The tenderness over the affected sinus indicates inflammation in that area. Allergic rhinitis typically presents with bilateral nasal congestion, clear nasal discharge, and itching, rather than facial pain and purulent discharge. Nasal polyps are associated with chronic conditions and usually lead to more gradual onset of symptoms. A deviated nasal septum may contribute to chronic sinus issues but typically does not present with acute symptoms of infection like purulent discharge and facial pain.
A client is admitted with acute gouty arthritis. Which medication does the nurse anticipate the health care provider may prescribe to prevent and treat an acute attack of gout?
- A. Ibuprofen (Motrin)
- B. Probenecid (Benemid)
- C. Colchicine (Colsalide)
- D. Hydrocortisone (Cortef)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Colchicine is a medication commonly prescribed to prevent and treat acute attacks of gout. It works by reducing inflammation caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints. Colchicine is effective in relieving pain and reducing swelling during gout attacks. It is important to follow the prescribed dosage due to potential side effects such as gastrointestinal upset. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can be used for pain relief but is not specific for gout treatment. Probenecid is used for chronic gout by helping the kidneys remove uric acid, not for acute gout attacks. Hydrocortisone is a steroid that may be used in some cases but is not a first-line treatment for acute gouty arthritis.
Patient Sonia, who bas hypothyroidism is given which ONE of the following drug therapies?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Iron pills
- C. Iodine
- D. Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patient Sonia, who has hypothyroidism, would benefit from treatment with levothyroxine. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine (T4) and is commonly prescribed to replace the deficient thyroid hormone in patients with hypothyroidism. It helps restore the thyroid hormone levels in the body, relieving symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance that are characteristic of hypothyroidism. Propranolol is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension, anxiety, and migraines; iron pills are used to treat iron deficiency anemia; and iodine supplementation is not typically used in the treatment of hypothyroidism unless it is due to iodine deficiency.