A woman who is breastfeeding calls her obstetrician's office and reports increased anxiety since the vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. She stopped taking her antianxiety medications but is thinking of restarting them. What response should the nurse provide?
- A. Describe the potential transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk.
- B. Encourage her to utilize stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing.
- C. Explain that anxiety is a common reaction for mothers of 3-week-old infants.
- D. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because some antianxiety medications are considered safe during breastfeeding. The nurse should reassure the client and encourage her to discuss options with her healthcare provider to manage anxiety safely while continuing to breastfeed. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the transmission of drugs rather than providing guidance on safe medication use. Choice B, while promoting stress-relieving techniques, does not address the potential need for medication. Choice C is incorrect as it minimizes the woman's reported anxiety, which may require professional intervention.
You may also like to solve these questions
A male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. What laboratory value should the nurse review?
- A. Capillary glucose.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Urine specific gravity.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low calcium levels in the blood. Reviewing the client's serum calcium levels is crucial in this situation to assess for hypocalcemia. Choice A, Capillary glucose, is incorrect because symptoms described are not typically associated with glucose abnormalities. Choice C, Urine specific gravity, and Choice D, White blood cell count, are unrelated to the symptoms presented and are not indicative of the client's condition.
A client with acute kidney injury has an elevated creatinine level. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for dialysis.
- C. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for dialysis. Clients with acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine may require dialysis to support kidney function and remove waste products from the blood. Preparing for dialysis ensures timely intervention in preventing further complications. Administering diuretics (Choice A) may worsen the client's condition by further compromising kidney function. Restricting fluid intake (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority over preparing for dialysis. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, but the immediate priority is to prepare for dialysis to address the acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine level.
A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed antibiotics. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to give the client?
- A. Take the antibiotics with food
- B. Complete the full course of antibiotics
- C. Increase fluid intake to at least 2 liters per day
- D. Take over-the-counter pain relievers for discomfort
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to give a client with a UTI who is prescribed antibiotics is to complete the full course of antibiotics. Completing the full course of antibiotics is essential to ensure that the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. While taking antibiotics with food, increasing fluid intake, and managing discomfort with pain relievers are important aspects of UTI management, completing the prescribed course of antibiotics is the top priority to achieve the best treatment outcomes and prevent recurrence of the infection.
A client receiving heparin therapy develops sudden chest pain and dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin as prescribed.
- C. Assess for signs of bleeding at the injection site.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of albuterol.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen and elevate the head of the bed. These interventions help relieve dyspnea and chest pain, which can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism or other complications during heparin therapy. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not the initial priority in this situation as the client's symptoms are not suggestive of angina. Assessing for bleeding (Choice C) is important but not the first action needed to address chest pain and dyspnea. Administering albuterol (Choice D) is not indicated unless there are specific respiratory issues requiring it, which are not described in the scenario.
A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops a fever. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer an antipyretic as prescribed.
- B. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Slow the rate of the transfusion.
- D. Continue the transfusion and reassess in 15 minutes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action when a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial to prevent further reactions and ensure prompt intervention. Administering an antipyretic (Choice A) may mask symptoms and delay appropriate treatment. Slowing the rate of the transfusion (Choice C) might not address the underlying cause of the fever. Continuing the transfusion and reassessing in 15 minutes (Choice D) could worsen the client's condition if there is a severe reaction occurring.