Nokea
A woman with pelvic inflammatory disease complains of lower abdominal pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Have her rate her pain on a 0 to 10 scale
- B. Administer antibiotics as ordered
- C. Administer an analgesic as ordered
- D. Teach the patient about causes and prevention of STDs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to administer antibiotics as ordered first because pelvic inflammatory disease is caused by an infection, usually from sexually transmitted organisms. Administering antibiotics promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and treat the underlying infection. This helps to alleviate the source of the pain. Rating pain severity, administering analgesics, and patient education are important but should come after addressing the infection to prevent worsening of the condition.
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When caring for Mr. Reyes, the nurse should assess for
- A. Decreased carotid pulses
- B. Altered level of consciousness
- C. Bleeding from oral cavity
- D. Absence of deep tendon-reflexes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered level of consciousness. This is crucial as it can indicate various underlying health issues affecting Mr. Reyes. Assessing for this helps in detecting potential neurological, metabolic, or cardiac issues.
A: Decreased carotid pulses - While important, it is not as critical as altered level of consciousness in this scenario.
C: Bleeding from oral cavity - This is important to address but does not take priority over assessing Mr. Reyes' level of consciousness.
D: Absence of deep tendon-reflexes - This is more specific to neurological assessments and may not be as urgent as assessing his level of consciousness.
Which of the following would the nurse teach the patient is the most common site for ear infections?
- A. Outer ear
- B. Middle ear
- C. Inner ear
- D. Semicircular canal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Middle ear. This is because the middle ear is the most common site for ear infections due to its anatomy, including the Eustachian tube that can easily become blocked, leading to fluid buildup and infection. The outer ear (A) is less susceptible to infections, while the inner ear (C) and semicircular canal (D) are not typically involved in ear infections, as they are more related to balance and hearing functions rather than infection susceptibility.
When can a donor and recipient of blood be considered compatible?
- A. If there is no change in the blood color when both samples are mixed in the laboratory
- B. If there are blood clots when both samples are mixed in the laboratory
- C. If there is no clumping or hemolysis when both samples are mixed in the laboratory
- D. If a blood drop does not sink when dropped in water after both samples are mixed in the laboratory
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because compatibility between blood donor and recipient is determined by the absence of clumping or hemolysis when both samples are mixed. Clumping indicates an incompatible blood type reaction, leading to potential harm. Blood clots (option B) are not indicative of compatibility but rather a sign of coagulation issues. Blood color change (option A) and blood drop sinking in water (option D) are not reliable indicators of blood compatibility. In summary, option C is correct as it directly assesses for the absence of a harmful reaction, while the other choices do not accurately determine blood compatibility.
The nurse provides care for a client with deep partial-thickness burns. What could cause a reduced hematocrit (Hct) in this client?
- A. Hypoalbuminemia with hemoconcentration
- B. Volume overload with hemodilution
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Lack of erythropoeitin factor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Volume overload with hemodilution. In deep partial-thickness burns, there can be fluid shifts leading to volume overload. This excess fluid in the intravascular space can dilute the blood, resulting in a decreased hematocrit (Hct). Reduced Hct indicates lower concentration of red blood cells in the blood. Other choices are incorrect because hypoalbuminemia would lead to hemoconcentration, metabolic acidosis would not directly cause a reduced Hct, and lack of erythropoietin factor would primarily affect erythropoiesis but not directly lead to decreased Hct.
A 46 y.o. woman is admitted to the rehabilitation unit with left-sided hemiparesis resulting from a subarachnoid hemorrhage. She is not oriented to her surroundings or situation, but she does recognize her family. On admission, she tells her nurse that she can walk to the bathroom without assistance. Which of the ff. responses by the nurse is best?
- A. Allow her to ambulate unassisted, to encourage positive self-esteem.
- B. Ask her to demonstrate her ability to ambulate.
- C. Explain that someone will assist her as long as she is in the rehabilitation facility.
- D. Ask another staff member to help ambulate the patient the first time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask her to demonstrate her ability to ambulate. This response is best because it allows the nurse to assess the patient's actual ability to walk safely to the bathroom. By observing her, the nurse can ensure her safety and prevent potential falls. This approach also respects the patient's autonomy while prioritizing her safety.
Incorrect responses:
A: Allowing her to ambulate unassisted solely for positive self-esteem overlooks the importance of assessing her actual capability and ensuring safety.
C: Explaining that assistance will always be available may not address the immediate need for assessment and safety.
D: Asking another staff member to assist without assessing the patient's ability herself does not allow the nurse to directly evaluate the patient's safety and independence.